2012-2016 ELEMENT 4 EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL
As Modified January 30, 2012 to be
Effective July 1, 2012 - June 30, 2016
SUBELEMENT E1 -
COMMISSION’S RULES [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups]
E1A Operating Standards:
frequency privileges; emission standards; automatic message forwarding;
frequency sharing; stations aboard ships or aircraft
E1A01
(D) [97.301, 97.305]
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier
frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents
the highest frequency at which a properly adjusted USB emission will be totally within the band?
A. The exact upper band
edge
B. 300 Hz below the upper
band edge
C. 1 kHz below the upper
band edge
D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge
~~
E1A02
(D) [97.301, 97.305]
When using a transceiver that displays the carrier
frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies
represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the
band?
A. The exact lower band
edge
B. 300 Hz above the lower
band edge
C. 1 kHz above the lower
band edge
D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge
~~
E1A03
(C) [97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver
displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ
on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the
same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX
station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the
displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band
C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge
D. No,
~~
E1A04
(C) [97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver
displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station
calling CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower
sideband on the same frequency?
A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within
the 75 meter phone band segment
C. No, my
sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
D. No,
~~
E1A05
(C) [97.313]
What is the maximum power
output permitted on the 60 meter band?
A. 50 watts PEP effective
radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
B. 50 watts PEP effective
radiated power relative to a dipole
C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to the gain of a
half-wave dipole
D. 100 watts PEP effective
radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator
~~
E1A06 (B) [97.303]
Which of the following describes the
rules for operation on the 60 meter band?
A. Working DX is not permitted
B.
Operation is restricted to specific emission types and specific channels
C. Operation is restricted to LSB
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E1A07
(D) [97.303]
What is the only amateur
band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies
is permitted?
A. 12 meter band
B. 17 meter band
C. 30 meter band
D. 60 meter band
~~
E1A08
(B) [97.219]
If a station in a message
forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC
rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?
A.
The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
B. The control operator of the originating station
C.
The control operators of all the stations in the system
D. The control operators
of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they
accept communications
~~
E1A09
(A) [97.219]
What is the first action
you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently
forwards a communication that violates FCC rules?
A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware
of it
B. Notify the originating
station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules
C. Notify the nearest FCC
Field Engineer’s office
D. Discontinue forwarding
all messages
~~
E1A10
(A) [97.11]
If an amateur station is
installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the
station is operated?
A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot
in command of the aircraft
B. The amateur station
operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are
in use
C. It must have a power
supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
D. Its operator must have
an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license
~~
E1A11
(B) [97.5]
What authorization or licensing is required when operating an
amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?
A.
Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
B. Any FCC-issued amateur license or a reciprocal permit for an alien
amateur licensee
C. Only General class or
higher amateur licenses
D. An unrestricted
Radiotelephone Operator Permit
~~
E1A12 (C)
[97.301, 97.305]
With your transceiver displaying the
carrier frequency of CW signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.500 MHz. Is it
legal to return the call using CW on the same frequency?
A. Yes, the DX station initiated the contact
B. Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 80 meter CW band
segment
C. No, sidebands from the
CW signal will be out of the band.
D. No,
~~
E1A13
(B) [97.5]
Who must be in physical control of the
station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is
documented or registered in the
A. Only a person with an FCC Marine
Radio
B.
Any person holding an FCC-issued
amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
C. Only a person named in an amateur
station license grant
D. Any person named in an amateur
station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone
Operator Permit
~~
E1B Station restrictions
and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating
restrictions; spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna
structure restrictions; RACES operations
E1B01
(D) [97.3]
Which of the following constitutes a
spurious emission?
A. An amateur station
transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification
B. A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other
than the intended recipient
C. Any transmitted bogus
signal that interferes with another licensed radio station
D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or
eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
~~
E1B02
(D) [97.13]
Which of the following
factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or
antenna structure to be restricted?
A. The location is near an
area of political conflict
B.
The location is of geographical or horticultural importance
C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for
coordination with one or more foreign governments
D. The location is of environmental importance or significant in American
history, architecture, or culture
~~
E1B03
(A) [97.13]
Within what distance must
an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful
interference?
A. 1 mile
B. 3 miles
C. 10 miles
D. 30 miles
~~
E1B04
(C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319]
What must be done before
placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or
wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical
Places?
A.
A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service
B. A letter of intent must
be filed with the National Audubon Society
C. An Environmental Assessment
must be submitted to the FCC
D. A form FSD-15 must be
submitted to the Department of the Interior
~~
E1B05
(D) [97.303]
What
is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?
A. 60 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 1.5 kHz
D. 2.8 kHz
~~
E1B06
(A) [97.15]
Which
of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur
station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?
A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and
register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
B. No special rules apply
if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement
with the EPA before construction begins
D. You must obtain a
construction permit from the airport zoning authority
~~
E1B07
(B) [97.15]
Where
must the carrier frequency of a CW signal be set to comply with FCC rules for
60 meter operation?
A.
At the lowest frequency of the channel
B. At the center frequency of
the channel
C.
At the highest frequency of the channel
D.
On any frequency where the signal’s sidebands are within the channel
~~
E1B08 (D)
[97.121]
What limitations may the FCC place on an
amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception,
assuming that the receiver(s) involved are of good engineering design?
A. The amateur
station must cease operation
B. The amateur station must cease
operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
C. The amateur station must cease
operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
D.
The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies
that cause the interference
~~
E1B09
(C) [97.407]
Which
amateur stations may be operated in RACES?
A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
B. Any FCC-licensed
amateur station except a Technician class operator's station
C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense
organization for the area served
D. Any FCC-licensed
amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)
~~
E1B10
(A) [97.407]
What frequencies are
authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES?
A. All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
B. Specific segments in
the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands
C.
Specific local government channels
D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels
~~
E1B11
(A) [97.307]
What is the permitted mean
power of any spurious emission relative to the mean power of the fundamental
emission from a station transmitter or external RF amplifier installed after
January 1, 2003, and transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHZ?
A. At least 43 dB below
B. At least 53 dB below
C. At least 63 dB below
D. At least 73 dB below
~~
E1B12
(B) [97.307]
What
is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency
for angle modulation?
A.
.5
B. 1.0
C. 2.0
D. 3.0
~~
E1C
Station Control: Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic
and remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and
automatically controlled stations
E1C01
(D) [97.3]
What
is a remotely controlled station?
A. A station operated away
from its regular home location
B.
A station controlled by someone other than the licensee
C. A station operating under automatic control
D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link
~~
E1C02
(A) [97.3, 97.109]
What
is meant by automatic control of a station?
A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control
operator does not have to be present at a control point
B. A station operating
with its output power controlled automatically
C. Remotely controlling a
station’s antenna pattern through a directional control link
D. The use of a control
link between a control point and a locally controlled station
~~
E1C03
(B) [97.3, 97.109]
How do the control
operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one
under local control?
A.
Under local control there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be
present at the control point
C.
Under automatic control there is no control operator
D. Under local control a
control operator is not required to be present at a control point
~~
E1C04
(B) [97.109]
When may an automatically
controlled station retransmit third party communications?
A. Never
B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
C. When specifically
agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
D. When approved by the
National Telecommunication and Information Administration
~~
E1C05
(A) [97.109]
When may an automatically
controlled station originate third party communications?
A. Never
B. Only when transmitting
an RTTY or data emissions
C. When specifically
agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
D. When approved by the
National Telecommunication and Information Administration
~~
E1C06
(C) [97.109]
Which of the following
statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true?
A. Only Extra Class
operators may be the control operator of a remote station
B.
A control operator need not be present at the control point
C. A control operator must be present at the control point
D.
Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled
~~
E1C07
(C) [97.3]
What
is meant by local control?
A. Controlling a station
through a local auxiliary link
B.
Automatically manipulating local station controls
C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator
D.
Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver
~~
E1C08
(B) [97.213]
What is the maximum
permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its
control link malfunctions?
A. 30 seconds
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
~~
E1C09
(D) [97.205]
Which of these frequencies
are available for an automatically controlled repeater operating below 30 MHz?
A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz
B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz
C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz
D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz
~~
E1C10
(B) [97.113]
What types of amateur
stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur
stations?
A. Only beacon, repeater
or space stations
B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations
C. Only earth stations, repeater
stations or model craft
D.
Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations
~~
E1D Amateur Satellite
service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations;
available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions
and special provisions; notification requirements
E1D01
(A) [97.3]
What is the
definition of the term telemetry?
A.
One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring
instrument
B. Two-way
radiotelephone transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
C. Two-way single channel transmissions
of data
D. One-way transmission
that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
~~
E1D02 (C)
[97.3]
What is the amateur satellite service?
A. A radio navigation service using
satellites for the purpose of self training, intercommunication and technical
studies carried out by amateurs
B. A
spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites
C.
A radio communications service using amateur radio stations on satellites
D. A radio communications service using
stations on Earth satellites for public service broadcast
~~
E1D03
(B) [97.3]
What is a telecommand
station in the amateur satellite service?
A. An amateur station
located on the Earth’s surface for communications with other Earth stations by
means of Earth satellites
B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify
or terminate functions of a space station
C. An amateur station
located more than 50 km above the Earth’s surface
D. An amateur station that
transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from
space
~~
E1D04
(A) [97.3]
What
is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service?
A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface intended for
communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space
B. An amateur station that
is not able to communicate using amateur satellites
C. An amateur station that
transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from
space
D.
Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth
~~
E1D05 (C)
[97.207]
What class of licensee is authorized to
be the control operator of a space station?
A. All except
Technician Class
B. Only General, Advanced or Amateur
Extra Class
C.
All classes
D. Only Amateur Extra Class
~~
E1D06 (A)
[97.207]
Which of the following special
provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space
station requirements?
A. The space station must
be capable of terminating transmissions by telecommand when directed by the FCC
B. The space
station must cease all transmissions after 5 years
C. The space station must be capable of
changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA
D. All of these
choices are correct
~~
E1D07
(A) [97.207]
Which amateur service HF
bands have frequencies authorized to space stations?
A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m
B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m
and 10m bands
C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m
and 10m bands
D. All HF bands
~~
E1D08
(D) [97.207]
Which VHF amateur service
bands have frequencies available for space stations?
A. 6 meters and 2 meters
B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and
1.25 meters
C. 2 meters and 1.25
meters
D. 2 meters
~~
E1D09
(B) [97.207]
Which amateur service UHF
bands have frequencies available for a space station?
A. 70 cm
B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm
C. 70 cm and 33 cm
D. 33 cm and 13 cm
~~
E1D10
(B) [97.211]
Which
amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations?
A.
Any amateur station designated by NASA
B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee,
subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control
operator
C. Any amateur station so
designated by the ITU
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
E1D11
(D) [97.209]
Which
amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?
A. Any amateur station
whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC’s International
Bureau
B.
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C. Only those of Amateur
Extra Class operators
D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of
operator license held by the control operator
~~
E1E Volunteer examiner
program: definitions; qualifications; preparation and administration of exams;
accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
E1E01
(D) [97.509]
What is the minimum number
of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license
examination?
A.
5
B.
2
C. 4
D. 3
~~
E1E02 (C) [97.523]
Where are the questions for all written
A. In FCC Part 97
B. In a question pool maintained by the FCC
C. In a
question pool maintained by all the VECs
D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order
~~
E1E03 (C)
[97.521]
What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?
A. A person who has volunteered to
administer amateur operator license examinations
B. A person who has volunteered to
prepare amateur operator license examinations
C.
An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate
amateur operator license examinations
D. The person who has entered into an
agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
~~
E1E04 (D) [97.509, 97.525]
Which of the following best describes the Volunteer
Examiner accreditation process?
A. Each General, Advanced
and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the
license is granted
B. The amateur operator
applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
C.
The prospective VE obtains accreditation from the FCC
D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC
requirements to serve as an examiner
~~
E1E05
(B) [97.503]
What
is the minimum passing score on amateur operator license examinations?
A.
Minimum passing score of 70%
B. Minimum passing score of 74%
C.
Minimum passing score of 80%
D. Minimum
passing score of 77%
~~
E1E06
(C) [97.509]
Who is responsible for the
proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license
examination session?
A. The VEC coordinating
the session
B. The FCC
C. Each administering VE
D. The VE session manager
~~
E1E07
(B) [97.509]
What should a VE do if a
candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur
operator license examination?
A. Warn the candidate that
continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
B. Immediately terminate the
candidate’s examination
C. Allow the candidate to
complete the examination, but invalidate the results
D. Immediately terminate
everyone’s examination and close the session
~~
E1E08
(C) [97.509]
To which of the following
examinees may a VE not administer an examination?
A. Employees of the VE
B. Friends of the VE
C. Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E1E09
(A) [97.509]
What may be the penalty
for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?
A. Revocation of the VE’s amateur station license grant and the
suspension of the VE’s amateur operator license grant
B. A fine of up to $1000
per occurrence
C. A sentence of up to one
year in prison
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
E1E10
(C) [97.509]
What must the
administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for
an amateur operator license?
A.
They must collect and send the documents to the NCVEC for grading
B.
They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
C. They must submit the
application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
D.
They must collect and send the documents to the FCC according to instructions
~~
E1E11
(B) [97.509]
What must the VE team do
if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an
upgrade or new license?
A. Photocopy all
examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license
grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
C. Issue the examinee the
new or upgrade license
D. All these choices are
correct
~~
E1E12
(A) [97.509]
What must the VE team do with the
application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?
A.
Return the application document to the examinee
B. Maintain
the application form with the VEC’s records
C. Send the application form to
the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
D. Destroy the application
form
~~
E1E13
(A) [97.519]
What are the consequences
of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed
by the FCC?
A. The licensee's license will be cancelled
B. The person may be fined
or imprisoned
C. The licensee is
disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant
D.
All these choices are correct
~~
E1E14 (A) [97.527]
For which types of
out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?
A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination
for an amateur radio license
B. Teaching an amateur
operator license examination preparation course
C. No expenses are
authorized for reimbursement
D. Providing amateur operator license examination
preparation training materials
~~
E1F Miscellaneous rules:
external RF power amplifiers; national quiet zone; business communications;
compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal
operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with
foreign countries; special temporary authority
E1F01
(B) [97.305]
On
what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?
A. Only on amateur
frequencies above 50 MHz
B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
C. Only on amateur
frequencies above 420 MHz
D. Only on amateur
frequencies above 144 MHz
~~
E1F02
(A) [97.5]
Which of the following
operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed
A. CEPT agreement
B. IARP agreement
C. ITU reciprocal license
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
E1F03
(A) [97.315]
Under what circumstances
may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144
MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?
A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is
sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station
B.
The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
C. It was imported from a
manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power
amplifiers
D. It was imported from a
manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country’s
government
~~
E1F04
(A) [97.3]
Which of the following
geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?
A. A line roughly parallel to
and south of the US-Canadian border
B. A line roughly parallel
to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
C. A line roughly parallel
to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline
D.
A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
~~
E1F05
(D) [97.303]
Amateur stations may not
transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?
A. 440 - 450 MHz
B. 53 - 54 MHz
C. 222 - 223 MHz
D. 420 - 430 MHz
~~
E1F06
(C) [97.3]
What
is the National Radio Quiet Zone?
A. An area in
B.
An area in
C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
D.
An area in
~~
E1F07
(D) [97.113]
When
may an amateur station send a message to a business?
A.
When the total money involved does not exceed $25
B. When the control
operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency
C.
When transmitting international third-party communications
D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary
interest in the communications
~~
E1F08 (A)
[97.113]
Which of the following types of amateur
station communications are prohibited?
A.
Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as
otherwise provided in the rules
B. Communications that have a political
content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
C. Communications that have a religious
content
D. Communications in a language other
than English
~~
E1F09
(D) [97.311]
Which of the following conditions apply
when transmitting spread spectrum emission?
A.
A station transmitting SS emission must not cause harmful interference to other
stations employing other authorized emissions
B. The transmitting station
must be in an area regulated by the FCC or in a country that permits SS
emissions
C. The transmission must not
be used to obscure the meaning of any communication
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
E1F10
(C) [97.313]
What is the maximum
transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum
communications?
A. 1 W
B. 1.5 W
C. 10 W
D. 1.5 kW
~~
E1F11 (D) [97.317]
Which of the following best describes
one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it
is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?
A. It must produce full legal output
when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
B. It must be capable of external RF
switching between its input and output networks
C. It must
exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range
D.
It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at the
lesser of 1500 watts, or its full output power
~~
E1F12
(B) [97.201]
Who
may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
A.
Any licensed amateur operator
B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
C.
Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
D. Only Amateur Extra
Class operators
~~
E1F13 (C)
[97.117]
What types of communications may be
transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?
A.
Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
B. Messages intended for connection to
users of the maritime satellite service
C.
Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of
a personal nature
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E1F14
(A) [1.931]
Under what circumstances
might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an
amateur station?
A. To provide for experimental
amateur communications
B. To allow regular
operation on Land Mobile channels
C.
To provide additional spectrum for personal use
D. To provide temporary
operation while awaiting normal licensing
~~
SUBELEMENT E2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions
- 5 Groups]
E2A Amateur radio in
space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite
hardware; satellite operations
E2A01 (C)
What is the direction of an ascending
pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From west to east
B. From east to west
C. From south to north
D. From north to south
~~
E2A02 (A)
What is the direction of a descending
pass for an amateur satellite?
A. From north to south
B. From west to east
C. From east to west
D. From south to north
~~
E2A03 (C)
What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite?
A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit
B. The point of minimum height of a
satellite's orbit
C. The time it takes for a
satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth
D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee
~~
E2A04
(B)
What is meant by the term
mode as applied to an amateur radio satellite?
A.
The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite
B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands
C.
The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth
D. Whether the satellite
is in a polar or equatorial orbit
~~
E2A05 (D)
What
do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?
A.
Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
B. The location of the
ground control station
C. The polarization of
uplink and downlink signals
D. The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
~~
E2A06 (A)
On what band would a satellite receive
signals if it were operating in mode U/V?
A. 435-438 MHz
B. 144-146
MHz
C. 50.0-50.2
MHz
D. 29.5 to 29.7 MHz
~~
E2A07
(D)
Which of the following
types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?
A. FM and CW
B. SSB and SSTV
C. PSK and Packet
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E2A08 (B)
Why should effective radiated power to a
satellite which uses a linear transponder be limited?
A. To prevent
creating errors in the satellite telemetry
B.
To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
C. To prevent
the satellite from emitting out of band signals
D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial
QSOs
~~
E2A09
(A)
What do the terms L band
and S band specify with regard to satellite communications?
A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands
B. The 2 meter and 70
centimeter bands
C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward
systems
D. Which sideband to use
~~
E2A10 (A)
Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly
repeating fading effect?
A. Because the satellite is spinning
B. Because of ionospheric absorption
C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude
D. Because of the Doppler Effect
~~
E2A11 (B)
What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin
modulation and Faraday rotation?
A. A linearly polarized antenna
B. A circularly polarized
antenna
C. An isotropic antenna
D. A log-periodic dipole array
~~
E2A12 (D)
What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time?
A. By means of the Doppler data for the
specified satellite
B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination
C. By adding the mean anomaly to the
orbital inclination
D. By calculations using the
Keplerian elements for the specified satellite
~~
E2A13 (B)
What type of satellite appears to stay
in one position in the sky?
A. HEO
B. Geostationary
C. Geomagnetic
D. LEO
~~
E2B Television practices:
fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards
and techniques
E2B01 (A)
How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan
(NTSC) television system?
A.
30
B. 60
C. 90
D. 120
~~
E2B02 (C)
How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 525
D. 1080
~~
E2B03 (D)
How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC)
television system?
A. By scanning two fields simultaneously
B. By scanning each field from bottom to top
C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in
the next
D. By scanning odd numbered
lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next
~~
E2B04 (B)
What is blanking in a video signal?
A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses
B. Turning off the scanning
beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top
C. Turning off the scanning beam at the
conclusion of a transmission
D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern
~~
E2B05 (C)
Which of the following is
an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast- scan TV
transmissions?
A.
The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
B. The vestigial sideband
contains chroma information
C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector
circuitry
D. Vestigial sideband
provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
~~
E2B06 (A)
What is vestigial sideband
modulation?
A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the
other are transmitted
B. A type of modulation in
which one sideband is inverted
C. Narrow-band FM
transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency
modulating the carrier
D. Spread spectrum
modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband
amplitude modulation
~~
E2B07 (B)
What is the name of the
signal component that carries color information in NTSC video?
A. Luminance
B. Chroma
C. Hue
D. Spectral Intensity
~~
E2B08 (D)
Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying
audio with amateur fast-scan television?
A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier
B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link
C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
E2B09 (D)
What hardware, other than a receiver with SSB capability and a suitable
computer, is needed to decode SSTV using Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)?
A. A special IF converter
B. A special front end limiter
C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses
D.
No other hardware is needed
~~
E2B10 (A)
Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio
Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur
bands?
A. 3 KHz
B. 10 KHz
C. 15 KHz
D. 20 KHz
~~
E2B11 (B)
What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code
transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission?
A. To lock the color burst oscillator in
color SSTV images
B. To identify the SSTV mode
being used
C. To provide vertical synchronization
D. To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
~~
E2B12 (D)
How are analog SSTV images typically transmitted on the HF bands?
A. Video is converted to equivalent
Baudot representation
B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation
C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using PSK
D. Varying tone frequencies
representing the video are transmitted using single sideband
~~
E2B13 (C)
How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan
color television picture?
A. 30 to 60
B. 60 or 100
C. 128 or 256
D. 180 or 360
~~
E2B14 (A)
What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the
brightness of the picture?
A. Tone frequency
B. Tone amplitude
C. Sync amplitude
D. Sync frequency
~~
E2B15 (A)
What signals SSTV receiving equipment to
begin a new picture line?
A. Specific tone frequencies
B. Elapsed time
C. Specific tone amplitudes
D. A two-tone signal
~~
E2B16 (D)
Which of the following is
the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?
A.
PAL
B.
DRM
C. Scottie
D. NTSC
~~
E2B17 (B)
What is the approximate bandwidth of a
slow-scan TV signal?
A. 600 Hz
B. 3 kHz
C. 2 MHz
D. 6 MHz
~~
E2B18 (D)
On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FM ATV
transmissions?
A. 14.230 MHz
B. 29.6 MHz
C. 52.525 MHz
D. 1255 MHz
~~
E2B19 (C)
What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV
transmissions?
A. None; they are allowed on all amateur
frequencies
B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945
MHz
C. They are restricted to phone
band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal
of the same modulation type
D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz
~~
E2C Operating methods: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum
transmissions; selecting an operating frequency
E2C01 (A)
Which of the
following is true about contest operating?
A.
Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log
B. Interference to other amateurs is
unavoidable and therefore acceptable
C. It is mandatory to transmit the call
sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station
D. Every contest
requires a signal report in the exchange
~~
E2C02 (A)
Which of the following best describes the term “self-spotting” in regards
to contest operating?
A. The generally prohibited
practice of posting one’s own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting
network
B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations
on a call sign spotting network
C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’s
frequency before calling that station
D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station’s
frequency before calling that station
~~
E2C03 (A)
From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally
excluded?
A. 30 meters
B. 6 meters
C. 2 meters
D. 33 cm
~~
E2C04 (D)
On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact
generally discouraged?
A. 3.525 MHz
B. 14.020 MHz
C. 28.330 MHz
D. 146.52 MHz
~~
E2C05 (B)
What is the function of a DX QSL
Manager?
A. To allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
B. To handle the receiving and sending of
confirmation cards for a DX station
C. To run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX
station
D. To relay
calls to and from a DX station
~~
E2C06 (C)
During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find
the highest level of activity?
A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
C. In the weak signal segment
of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling
frequency
~~
E2C07 (A)
What is the Cabrillo format?
A. A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
B. A method of exchanging information
during a contest QSO
C. The most common set of contest rules
D. The rules of order for meetings
between contest sponsors
~~
E2C08 (A)
Why are received spread-spectrum signals
resistant to interference?
A. Signals not using the
spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal
from being easily overpowered
C. The receiver is always equipped with
a digital blanker circuit
D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to change frequencies
~~
E2C09 (D)
How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping work?
A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to change frequencies
B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the
transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear
C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF
carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence
D. The frequency of the
transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence
also used by the receiving station
~~
E2C10 (D)
Why might a DX station state that they are listening on another
frequency?
A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is
prohibited to some responding stations
B. To separate the calling stations from
the DX station
C. To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E2C11 (A)
How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact
a DX station working a pileup or in a contest?
A.
Send your full call sign once or twice
B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make
contact
C. Send your full call sign and grid
square
D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words this is,
then your call sign three times
~~
E2C12 (B)
What might help to restore contact when
DX signals become too weak to copy across an entire HF band a few hours after sunset?
A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band
B. Switch to a lower frequency
HF band
C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass
D. Wait 24 hours before attempting
another communication on the band
~~
E2D Operating methods: VHF and UHF digital modes; APRS
E2D01 (B)
Which of the following digital modes is especially
designed for use for meteor scatter signals?
A. WSPR
B. FSK441
C. Hellschreiber
D. APRS
~~
E2D02 (A)
What is the definition of baud?
A. The number of data symbols transmitted
per second
B. The number of characters transmitted per second
C. The number of characters transmitted per minute
D. The number of words transmitted per minute
~~
E2D03 (D)
Which of the following digital modes is especially
useful for EME communications?
A. FSK441
B. PACTOR III
C. Olivia
D. JT65
~~
E2D04 (C)
What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur
Radio satellite?
A. To upload operational software for
the transponder
B. To delay download of telemetry between satellites
C. To store digital messages in
the satellite for later download by other stations
D. To relay messages between satellites
~~
E2D05 (B)
Which of the following techniques is normally used by low Earth orbiting
digital satellites to relay messages around the world?
A. Digipeating
B. Store-and-forward
C. Multi-satellite relaying
D. Node hopping
~~
E2D06 (A)
Which of the following is a commonly
used 2-meter APRS frequency?
A. 144.39 MHz
B. 144.20 MHz
C. 145.02 MHz
D. 146.52 MHz
~~
E2D07 (C)
Which of the following digital protocols
is used by APRS?
A. PACTOR
B. 802.11
C. AX.25
D. AMTOR
~~
E2D08 (A)
Which of the following types of packet
frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data?
A. Unnumbered Information
B. Disconnect
C. Acknowledgement
D. Connect
~~
E2D09 (D)
Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital
communications modes has the fastest data throughput?
A. AMTOR
B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C. PSK31
D. 300-baud packet
~~
E2D10 (C)
How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service
communications activity?
A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically
transmit medical data to the nearest hospital
B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay
the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points
C. An APRS station with a GPS
unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position
during the event
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E2D11 (D)
Which of the following data are used by the APRS network communicate your
location?
A. Polar coordinates
B. Time and frequency
C. Radio direction finding LOPs
D.
Latitude and longitude
~~
E2D12 (A)
How does JT65 improve EME communications?
A. It can decode signals many dB below the noise floor using
FEC
B. It controls the
receiver to track Doppler shift
C. It supplies
signals to guide the antenna to track the Moon
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E2E Operating methods: operating HF
digital modes; error correction
E2E01 (B)
Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?
A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
B. FSK
C. Pulse modulation
D. Spread spectrum
~~
E2E02 (A)
What do the letters FEC mean as they
relate to digital operation?
A. Forward Error Correction
B. First Error Correction
C. Fatal Error Correction
D. Final Error Correction
~~
E2E03 (C)
How is Forward Error Correction
implemented?
A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters
B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along
with the data characters
C. By transmitting extra data
that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors
D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to
a predefined algorithm
~~
E2E04 (A)
What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse
display suddenly disappears?
A. Selective fading has
occurred
B. One of the signal filters has saturated
C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency
D. The mark and space signal have been
inverted
~~
E2E05 (D)
How does ARQ accomplish
error correction?
A. Special binary codes
provide automatic correction
B.
Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
C. If errors are detected,
redundant data is substituted
D. If errors are detected, a retransmission
is requested
~~
E2E06 (C)
What is the most common data rate used
for HF packet communications?
A. 48 baud
B. 110 baud
C. 300 baud
D. 1200 baud
~~
E2E07 (B)
What is the typical bandwidth of a
properly modulated MFSK16 signal?
A. 31 Hz
B. 316 Hz
C. 550 Hz
D. 2.16 kHz
~~
E2E08 (B)
Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary
files?
A. Hellschreiber
B. PACTOR
C. RTTY
D. AMTOR
~~
E2E09 (D)
Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for
bandwidth efficiency?
A. RTTY
B. PACTOR
C. MT63
D. PSK31
~~
E2E10 (C)
Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth?
A. MFSK16
B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
C. PSK31
D. 300-baud packet
~~
E2E11 (A)
What is the difference between direct
FSK and audio FSK?
A.
Direct FSK applies the data signal to the transmitter VFO
B. Audio FSK has a superior frequency
response
C. Direct FSK uses a DC-coupled data
connection
D. Audio FSK can be performed anywhere
in the transmit chain
~~
E2E12 (A)
Which type of digital communication does
not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?
A.
Winlink
B. RTTY
C. PSK31
D. MFSK
~~
SUBELEMENT E3 - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION
[3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups]
E3A Propagation and technique: Earth-Moon-Earth
communications (EME), meteor scatter
E3A01 (D)
What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations
communicating by Moon bounce?
A. 500 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
B. 2000 miles, if the Moon is at apogee
C. 5000 miles, if the Moon is at perigee
D. 12,000 miles, as long as
both can “see” the Moon
~~
E3A02 (B)
What characterizes libration fading of
an Earth-Moon-Earth signal?
A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
B. A fluttery irregular fading
C. A gradual loss of signal as the Sun rises
D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the
transmitted signal
~~
E3A03 (A)
When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally
result in the least path loss?
A. When the Moon is at perigee
B. When the Moon is full
C. When the Moon is at apogee
D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz
~~
E3A04 (D)
What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications?
A. Equipment with very wide bandwidth
B. Equipment with very low dynamic range
C. Equipment with very low gain
D. Equipment with very low
noise figures
~~
E3A05 (A)
Which of the following describes a method of establishing EME contacts?
A.
Time synchronous transmissions with each station alternating
B. Storing and forwarding digital messages
C. Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons from the Moon
D. High speed CW identification to avoid fading
~~
E3A06 (B)
What frequency range would you normally
tune to find EME signals in the 2 meter band?
A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz
B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz
C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz
D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz
~~
E3A07 (D)
What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME signals in the
70 cm band?
A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz
B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz
C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz
D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz
~~
E3A08 (A)
When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of
free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere?
A. The E layer
B. The F1 layer
C. The F2 layer
D. The D layer
~~
E3A09 (C)
Which of the following frequency ranges is well suited for meteor-scatter
communications?
A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz
B. 10 - 14 MHz
C. 28 - 148 MHz
D. 220 - 450 MHz
~~
E3A10 (D)
Which of the following is a good technique for making meteor-scatter
contacts?
A. 15 second timed transmission sequences with stations alternating based
on location
B. Use of high speed CW or digital modes
C. Short transmission with rapidly repeated call signs and signal reports
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
E3B Propagation and technique: trans-equatorial, long path, gray-line;
multi-path propagation
E3B01 (A)
What is transequatorial propagation?
A. Propagation between two
mid-latitude points at approximately the same
distance north and south of the magnetic equator
B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator
C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic
equator
D. Propagation between two stations at
the same latitude
~~
E3B02 (C)
What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial
propagation?
A. 1000 miles
B. 2500 miles
C. 5000 miles
D. 7500 miles
~~
E3B03 (C)
What is the best time of day for
transequatorial propagation?
A. Morning
B. Noon
C. Afternoon or early evening
D. Late at night
~~
E3B04 (A)
What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must
be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the
strongest signals?
A. Long-path
B. Sporadic-E
C. Transequatorial
D. Auroral
~~
E3B05 (C)
Which amateur bands typically support
long-path propagation?
A. 160 to 40 meters
B. 30 to 10 meters
C. 160 to 10 meters
D. 6 meters to 2 meters
~~
E3B06 (B)
Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path
propagation?
A. 80 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 6 meters
~~
E3B07 (D)
Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal
of a distant station?
A. High D layer absorption
B. Meteor scatter
C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF
D. Receipt of a signal by more
than one path
~~
E3B08 (D)
What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel
along the terminator between daylight and darkness?
A. Transequatorial
B. Sporadic-E
C. Long-path
D. Gray-line
~~
E3B09 (A)
At what time of day is gray-line propagation most likely to occur?
A.
At sunrise and sunset
B. When the Sun is directly above the location of the transmitting
station
C. When the Sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications
path between the two stations
D. When the Sun is directly above the location of the receiving station
~~
E3B10 (B)
What is the cause of gray-line
propagation?
A. At midday, the Sun being directly overhead superheats the ionosphere
causing increased refraction of radio waves
B. At twilight, D-layer
absorption drops while E-layer and F-layer propagation remain strong
C. In darkness, solar absorption drops
greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady
D. At mid afternoon, the Sun heats the ionosphere decreasing radio wave refraction and the MUF
~~
E3B11 (C)
Which of the following describes gray-line propagation?
A. Backscatter contacts on the 10 meter band
B. Over the horizon propagation on the 6
and 2 meter bands
C. Long distance communications
at twilight on frequencies less than 15 MHz
D. Tropospheric propagation on the 2 meter
and 70 centimeter bands
~~
E3C Propagation and technique: Aurora propagation selective fading;
radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; effects of
ground on propagation; less common propagation modes
E3C01 (D)
Which of the following effects does
A. SSB signals are raspy
B. Signals propagating through the
C. CW signals appear to be modulated by white noise
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
E3C02 (C)
What is the cause of
A. The interaction between the solar wind and the Van Allen belt
B. A low sunspot level combined with
tropospheric ducting
C. The interaction of charged
particles from the Sun with the Earth’s magnetic field and the ionosphere
D. Meteor showers concentrated in the
northern latitudes
~~
E3C03 (D)
Where in the ionosphere does
A. In the F1-region
B. In the F2-region
C. In the D-region
D. In the E-region
~~
E3C04 (A)
Which emission mode is best for
A.
CW
B. SSB
C. FM
D. RTTY
~~
E3C05 (B)
Which of the following describes selective fading?
A. Variability of signal strength with beam heading
B. Partial cancellation of some
frequencies within the received pass band
C. Sideband inversion within the
ionosphere
D. Degradation of signal strength due to backscatter
~~
E3C06 (A)
By how much does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the
geometric horizon?
A. By approximately 15% of the
distance
B. By approximately twice the distance
C. By approximately one-half the distance
D. By approximately four times the distance
~~
E3C07 (B)
How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized 3-element beam
antenna vary with its height above ground?
A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases
with increasing height
B. The main lobe takeoff angle
decreases with increasing height
C. The horizontal beam width increases with height
D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height
~~
E3C08 (B)
What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels
for some distance within the F2 region?
A. Oblique-angle ray
B. Pedersen ray
C. Ordinary ray
D. Heaviside ray
~~
E3C09 (C)
Which of the following is usually responsible for causing VHF signals to
propagate for hundreds of miles?
A. D-region absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Ground wave
~~
E3C10 (B)
How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on
the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground?
A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases
in the downhill direction
B. The main lobe takeoff angle
decreases in the downhill direction
C. The horizontal beam width decreases
in the downhill direction
D. The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction
~~
E3C11 (B)
From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an
antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?
A. South
B. North
C. East
D. West
~~
E3C12 (C)
How does the maximum distance of ground-wave
propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?
A. It stays the same
B. It increases
C. It decreases
D. It peaks at roughly 14 MHz
~~
E3C13 (A)
What type of polarization is best for ground-wave propagation?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Elliptical
~~
E3C14 (D)
Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?
A. E-region skip
B. D-region skip
C. Downward bending due to aurora refraction
D. Downward bending due to density
variations in the atmosphere
~~
SUBELEMENT
E4 - AMATEUR PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups]
E4A Test equipment: analog
and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers;
oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF measurements
E4A01
(C)
How does a spectrum
analyzer differ from an oscilloscope?
A. A spectrum analyzer
measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals
B. A spectrum analyzer
displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average
amplitude of signals
C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an
oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain
D. A spectrum analyzer
displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies
~~
E4A02
(D)
Which of the following
parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis?
A.
SWR
B.
Q
C. Time
D. Frequency
~~
E4A03
(A)
Which of the following
parameters would a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis?
A. Amplitude
B. Duration
C. SWR
D. Q
~~
E4A04
(A)
Which of the following
test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A wattmeter
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain
reflectometer
~~
E4A05
(B)
Which of the following
test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an
SSB transmission?
A. A wattmeter
B. A spectrum analyzer
C. A logic analyzer
D. A time-domain
reflectometer
~~
E4A06
(D)
Which
of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?
A. The degree of isolation
between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
B. Whether a crystal is
operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
C. The spectral output of
a transmitter
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E4A07
(B)
Which of the following is
an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge to measure
antenna SWR?
A.
Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
B. Antenna analyzers do not need an external RF source
C. Antenna analyzers
display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E4A08
(D)
Which of the following
instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna?
A. A spectrum analyzer
B. A Q meter
C. An ohmmeter
D. An antenna analyzer
~~
E4A09
(A)
Which
of the following describes a good method for measuring the intermodulation distortion
of your own PSK signal?
A. Transmit into a dummy load,
receive the signal on a second receiver, and feed the audio into the sound card
of a computer running an appropriate PSK program
B.
Multiply the ALC level on the transmitter during a normal transmission by the
average power output
C.
Use an RF voltmeter coupled to the transmitter output using appropriate
isolation to prevent damage to the meter
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E4A10
(D)
Which of the following tests establishes that a
silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?
A. Measure
base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately
6 to 7 ohms
B. Measure base-to-emitter
resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms
C. Measure base-to-emitter
voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately
6 to 7 volts
D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be
approximately
0.6 to 0.7 volts
~~
E4A11 (B)
Which of these instruments could be used for
detailed analysis of digital signals?
A. Dip meter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Ohmmeter
D. Q meter
~~
E4A12
(B)
Which of the following
procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum
analyzer to a transmitter output?
A. Use high quality double
shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses
B. Attenuate the transmitter
output going to the spectrum analyzer
C. Match the antenna to
the load
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
E4B Measurement techniques:
Instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize
errors; measurement of Q; instrument calibration
E4B01
(B)
Which of the following
factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?
A. Input attenuator
accuracy
B. Time base accuracy
C. Decade divider accuracy
D. Temperature coefficient
of the logic
~~
E4B02
(C)
What is an advantage of
using a bridge circuit to measure impedance?
A.
It provides an excellent match under all conditions
B. It is relatively immune
to drift in the signal generator source
C. The measurement is based on obtaining a signal null, which can be done
very precisely
D.
It can display results directly in Smith chart format
~~
E4B03
(C)
If a frequency counter
with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most
the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
A. 165.2 Hz
B. 14.652 kHz
C. 146.52 Hz
D. 1.4652 MHz
~~
E4B04
(A)
If a frequency counter
with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most
the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
A. 14.652 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 1.4652 Hz
D. 1.4652 kHz
~~
E4B05
(D)
If a frequency counter
with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most
the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading?
A. 146.52 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 146.52 kHz
D. 1465.20 Hz
~~
E4B06
(D)
How much power is being
absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a
transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts
reflected power?
A. 100 watts
B. 125 watts
C. 25 watts
D. 75 watts
~~
E4B07
(A)
Which of the following is
good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?
A. Keep the signal ground connection of the probe as short as possible
B. Never use a high
impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit
C.
Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
E4B08
(C)
Which
of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter?
A. High reluctance input
B. Low reluctance input
C. High impedance input
D. Low impedance input
~~
E4B09
(D)
What is indicated if the
current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feed line of
a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance?
A.
There is possibly a short to ground in the feed line
B. The transmitter is not
properly neutralized
C.
There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feed line
D. There is more power going into the antenna
~~
E4B10
(B)
Which of the following
describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?
A. Modulate the
transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the
RF output with a spectrum analyzer
B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio
frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
C. Modulate the
transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF
output with a peak reading wattmeter
D. Modulate the
transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF
output with a logic analyzer
~~
E4B11 (D)
How should a portable antenna analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance
and feed point impedance?
A.
Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base
B. Connect the analyzer
via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna
C.
Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer
D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector
~~
E4B12
(A)
What is the significance
of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?
A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per
volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter
B. When used as a
galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine
the power drawn by the device under test
C. When used as an
ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the
voltage applied to the circuit
D. When used as an
ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the
size of shunt needed
~~
E4B13
(A)
How
is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted?
A. A square wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the
horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
B. A high frequency sine
wave is displayed and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
C. A frequency standard is
displayed and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
D. A DC voltage standard
is displayed and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
~~
E4B14
(B)
What happens if a dip meter
is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked?
A. Harmonics are generated
B. A less accurate reading results
C. Cross modulation occurs
D. Intermodulation
distortion occurs
~~
E4B15
(C)
Which of the following can
be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series-tuned circuit?
A. The inductance to
capacitance ratio
B. The frequency shift
C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
D.
The resonant frequency of the circuit
~~
E4C Receiver performance
characteristics: phase noise; capture effect; noise floor; image rejection; MDS;
signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity
E4C01
(D)
What is an effect of
excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver?
A.
It limits the receiver’s ability to receive strong signals
B. It reduces receiver
sensitivity
C. It decreases receiver
third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range
D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with
reception of weak signals
~~
E4C02 (A)
Which
of the following portions of a receiver can be effective in eliminating image
signal interference?
A. A front-end filter or pre-selector
B.
A narrow IF filter
C.
A notch filter
D.
A properly adjusted product detector
~~
E4C03
(C)
What is the term for the
blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal?
A. Desensitization
B. Cross-modulation
interference
C. Capture effect
D. Frequency
discrimination
~~
E4C04 (D)
What is the definition of
the noise figure of a receiver?
A. The ratio of
atmospheric noise to phase noise
B. The noise bandwidth in
Hertz compared to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
C. The ratio of thermal
noise to atmospheric noise
D. The ratio in dB of the noise generated
by the receiver compared to the theoretical minimum noise
~~
E4C05
(B)
What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz
represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver?
A.
The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency
B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room
temperature
C.
The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
D. The galactic noise
contribution to minimum detectable signal
~~
E4C06
(D)
A CW receiver with the AGC
off has an equivalent input noise power density of -174 dBm/Hz. What would be the level of an unmodulated
carrier input to this receiver that would yield an audio output SNR of 0 dB in
a 400 Hz noise bandwidth?
A. 174 dBm
B. -164 dBm
C. -155 dBm
D. -148 dBm
~~
E4C07
(B)
What
does the MDS of a receiver represent?
A. The meter display
sensitivity
B. The minimum discernible signal
C. The multiplex
distortion stability
D. The maximum detectable
spectrum
~~
E4C08
(B)
How might lowering the
noise figure affect receiver performance?
A. It would reduce the
signal to noise ratio
B. It would improve weak signal sensitivity
C. It would reduce bandwidth
D. It would increase
bandwidth
~~
E4C09 (C)
Which
of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high frequency for
the design of the IF in a conventional HF or VHF communications receiver?
A.
Fewer components in the receiver
B.
Reduced drift
C. Easier for front-end
circuitry to eliminate image responses
D.
Improved receiver noise figure
~~
E4C10
(B)
Which of the following is
a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?
A. 100 Hz
B. 300 Hz
C. 6000 Hz
D. 2400 Hz
~~
E4C11
(B)
Which
of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur SSB phone
receiver?
A. 1 kHz
B. 2.4 kHz
C. 4.2 kHz
D. 4.8 kHz
~~
E4C12
(D)
What is an undesirable
effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver?
A. Output-offset overshoot
B. Filter ringing
C. Thermal-noise
distortion
D. Undesired signals may be heard
~~
E4C13
(C)
How
does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?
A.
It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise
B. It improves
intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
C. It improves
dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E4C14 (D)
On which of the following frequencies
might a signal be transmitting which is generating a spurious image signal in a
receiver tuned to 14.300 MHz and which uses a 455 kHz IF frequency?
A. 13.845 MHz
B. 14.755 MHz
C. 14.445 MHz
D.
15.210 MHz
~~
E4C15 (D)
What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF receiver
with an antenna connected?
A. Detector noise
B. Induction motor noise
C. Receiver front-end noise
D. Atmospheric noise
~~
E4D Receiver performance
characteristics: blocking dynamic range; intermodulation and cross-modulation
interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselection
E4D01
(A)
What
is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?
A. The
difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of
gain compression
B. The minimum difference
in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block
the other
C. The difference in dB
between the noise floor and the third order intercept point
D. The minimum difference
in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products
greater than the noise floor
~~
E4D02
(A)
Which
of the following describes two problems caused by poor dynamic range in a
communications receiver?
A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong
adjacent signals
B. Oscillator instability
requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite
sideband
C. Cross-modulation of the
desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker
D. Oscillator instability
and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
~~
E4D03
(B)
How
can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur?
A. When the repeaters are
in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one
or both transmitters
B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in the
final amplifier of one or both transmitters
C. When the signals from
the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead
D. When the signals from
the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead
~~
E4D04
(B)
Which of the following may reduce or eliminate
intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by another transmitter
operating in close proximity?
A. A band-pass filter in
the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
B. A properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter
C. A Class C final
amplifier
D. A Class D final
amplifier
~~
E4D05
(A)
What transmitter frequencies
would cause an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz
when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?
A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34
MHz
C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30
MHz
D. 173.35 MHz and 139.40
MHz
~~
E4D06
(D)
What is the term for
unwanted signals generated by the mixing of two or more signals?
A. Amplifier
desensitization
B. Neutralization
C. Adjacent channel
interference
D. Intermodulation interference
~~
E4D07 (D)
Which of the following
describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is
causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal?
A. A large increase in
background noise
B. A reduction in apparent
signal strength
C. The desired signal can
no longer be heard
D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired
signal
~~
E4D08
(C)
What
causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?
A. Too little gain
B. Lack of neutralization
C. Nonlinear circuits or devices
D. Positive feedback
~~
E4D09
(C)
What is the purpose of the
preselector in a communications receiver?
A. To store often-used
frequencies
B. To provide a range of
AGC time constants
C. To increase rejection of unwanted signals
D. To allow selection of the
optimum RF amplifier device
~~
E4D10
(C)
What does a third-order
intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?
A. Signals less than 40
dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
B. The receiver can
tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing
third-order intermodulation products
C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product
with the same level as the input signals
D. A pair of 1 mW input
signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB
stronger than the input signal
~~
E4D11
(A)
Why are third-order
intermodulation products created within a receiver of particular interest
compared to other products?
A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band of interest is also likely to be within
the band
B. The third-order
intercept is much higher than other orders
C. Third-order products
are an indication of poor image rejection
D. Third-order
intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band
of interest
~~
E4D12
(A)
What is the term for the
reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received
frequency?
A. Desensitization
B. Quieting
C. Cross-modulation
interference
D. Squelch gain rollback
~~
E4D13
(B)
Which of the following can
cause receiver desensitization?
A. Audio gain adjusted too
low
B. Strong adjacent-channel signals
C. Audio bias adjusted too
high
D. Squelch gain misadjusted
~~
E4D14
(A)
Which of the following is
a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization?
A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver
B. Raise the receiver IF
frequency
C. Increase the receiver
front end gain
D. Switch from fast AGC to
slow AGC
~~
E4E Noise suppression:
system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources;
DSP noise reduction; noise blankers
E4E01
(A)
Which of the following
types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise
blanker?
A. Ignition noise
B. Broadband white noise
C. Heterodyne interference
D. All of these choices
are correct
~~
E4E02
(D)
Which of the following
types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter?
A. Broadband white noise
B. Ignition noise
C. Power line noise
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E4E03
(B)
Which of the following
signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals?
A. Signals which are
constant at all IF levels
B. Signals which appear across a wide bandwidth
C. Signals which appear at
one IF but not another
D. Signals which have a
sharply peaked frequency distribution
~~
E4E04
(D)
How can conducted and
radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed?
A. By installing filter
capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking
capacitor in the field lead
B. By installing a noise
suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor in both leads
C. By installing a
high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in
parallel with the field lead
D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by
installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads
~~
E4E05
(B)
How can noise from an
electric motor be suppressed?
A. By installing a high
pass filter in series with the motor’s power leads
B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor
leads
C.
By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads
D. By using a ground-fault
current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor
~~
E4E06
(B)
What
is a major cause of atmospheric static?
A. Solar radio frequency
emissions
B. Thunderstorms
C. Geomagnetic storms
D. Meteor showers
~~
E4E07
(C)
How can you determine if line
noise interference is being generated within your home?
A. By checking the power line
voltage with a time domain reflectometer
B.
By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope
C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on
a battery operated radio
D.
By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer
~~
E4E08
(A)
What type of signal is
picked up by electrical wiring near a radio antenna?
A. A common-mode signal at the
frequency of the radio transmitter
B. An electrical-sparking
signal
C.
A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency
D. Harmonics of the AC
power line frequency
~~
E4E09
(C)
What undesirable effect
can occur when using an IF noise blanker?
A.
Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
B. The audio frequency
bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet
emission standards
D.
FM signals can no longer be demodulated
~~
E4E10
(D)
What is a common
characteristic of interference caused by a touch controlled electrical device?
A. The interfering signal
sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz hum on a
SSB or CW receiver
B.
The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum
C. The interfering signal
can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a
HF band
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
E4E11
(B)
Which of the following is
the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast
signals within one or more of the MF or HF ham bands?
A.
The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal
B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the broadcast
signals
C.
You are receiving sky wave signals from a distant station
D. Your station receiver
IF amplifier stage is defective
~~
E4E12
(A)
What is one disadvantage
of using some types of automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW
signals?
A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it
removes interfering signals
B. Any nearby signal
passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
C. Received CW signals
will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency
D. Ringing in the DSP
filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters
~~
E4E13
(D)
What might be the cause of
a loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference that comes and goes at
intervals?
A.
Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
B. A defective doorbell or
doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
C. A malfunctioning
illuminated advertising display
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E4E14
(C)
What is one type of
electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby
personal computer?
A.
A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver
B. A clicking noise at
intervals of a few seconds
C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at
specific frequencies
D. A whining type noise
that continually pulses off and on
~~
SUBELEMENT E5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [4 Exam Questions - 4
Groups]
E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant
circuits; series and parallel resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase
relationships in reactive circuits
E5A01 (A)
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than
the voltage applied to them?
A. Resonance
B. Capacitance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
~~
E5A02 (C)
What is resonance in an electrical
circuit?
A. The highest frequency that will pass current
B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
C. The frequency at which the
capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance
D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive
impedance
~~
E5A03 (D)
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at
resonance?
A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
D. Approximately equal to
circuit resistance
~~
E5A04 (A)
What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an
inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?
A. Approximately equal to
circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance
C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
~~
E5A05 (B)
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series RLC circuit
as the frequency goes through resonance?
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. R/L
D. L/R
~~
E5A06 (B)
What is the magnitude of the circulating
current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times Pi, multiplied by the
square root of inductance L multiplied by capacitance C
D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F",
multiplied by inductance "L"
~~
E5A07 (A)
What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC
circuit at resonance?
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. R/L
D. L/R
~~
E5A08 (C)
What
is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a
series resonant circuit at resonance?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are
in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
~~
E5A09 (C)
What
is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a
parallel resonant circuit at resonance?
A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
C. The voltage and current are
in phase
D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
~~
E5A10 (A)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has
a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 18.9 kHz
B. 1.89 kHz
C. 94.5 kHz
D. 9.45 kHz
~~
E5A11 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has
a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
A. 157.8 Hz
B. 315.6 Hz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 23.67 kHz
~~
E5A12 (C)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has
a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?
A. 436.6 kHz
B. 218.3 kHz
C. 31.4 kHz
D. 15.7 kHz
~~
E5A13 (B)
What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has
a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?
A. 38.1 kHz
B. 76.2 kHz
C. 1.332 kHz
D. 2.665 kHz
~~
E5A14 (C)
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L
is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?
A. 44.72 MHz
B. 22.36 MHz
C. 3.56 MHz
D. 1.78 MHz
~~
E5A15 (B)
What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L
is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?
A. 3.76 MHz
B. 1.78 MHz
C. 11.18 MHz
D. 22.36 MHz
~~
E5A16 (D)
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms,
L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 23.5 MHz
B. 23.5 kHz
C. 7.12 kHz
D. 7.12 MHz
~~
E5A17 (A)
What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms,
L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?
A. 10.1 MHz
B. 63.2 MHz
C. 10.1 kHz
D. 63.2 kHz
~~
E5B Time constants and phase relationships: RLC time
constants; definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current;
phase angles of series and parallel circuits
E5B01 (B)
What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit
to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage?
A. An exponential rate of one
B. One time constant
C. One exponential period
D. A time factor of one
~~
E5B02 (D)
What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC
circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?
A. One discharge period
B. An exponential discharge rate of one
C. A discharge factor of one
D. One time constant
~~
E5B03 (D)
The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the
starting voltage after two time constants?
A. 86.5%
B. 63.2%
C. 36.8%
D. 13.5%
~~
E5B04 (D)
What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad
capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?
A. 55 seconds
B. 110 seconds
C. 440 seconds
D. 220 seconds
~~
E5B05 (A)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to
7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected
across it?
A. 0.02 seconds
B. 0.04 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 40 seconds
~~
E5B06 (C)
How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to
294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected
across it?
A. 4.50 seconds
B. 9 seconds
C. 450 seconds
D. 900 seconds
~~
E5B07 (C)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250
ohms?
A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading
the current
B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C.
14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
~~
E5B08 (A)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series RLC circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75
ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
~~
E5B09 (D)
What
is the relationship between the current through a capacitor and the voltage
across a capacitor?
A. Voltage and current are in phase
B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
D. Current leads voltage by 90
degrees
~~
E5B10 (A)
What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the
voltage across an inductor?
A. Voltage leads current by 90
degrees
B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
D. Voltage and current are in phase
~~
E5B11 (B)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50
ohms?
A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading
the current
C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
~~
E5B12 (C)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50
ohms?
A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current
~~
E5B13 (D)
What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current
through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500
ohms?
A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current
C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage
lagging the current
D. 14.04 degrees with the
voltage leading the current
~~
E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting
impedances in polar coordinates; rectangular coordinates
E5C01 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a
100-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees
B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45
degrees
C. 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees
D. 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees
~~
E5C02 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a
100-ohm-reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm
resistor, all connected in series?
A. 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
B. 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
C. 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees
D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0
degrees
~~
E5C03 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a
300-ohm-reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm
resistor, all connected in series?
A. 500 ohms at an angle of 37
degrees
B. 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
C. 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees
D. 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees
~~
E5C04 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a
400-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor?
A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees
B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
D. 500 ohms at an angle of
-53.1 degrees
~~
E5C05 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a
400-ohm-reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor?
A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9
degrees
B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees
D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees
~~
E5C06 (D)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a
100-ohm-reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees
C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45
degrees
~~
E5C07 (C)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a
100-ohm-reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor?
A. 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees
B. 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees
C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45
degrees
D. 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees
~~
E5C08 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a
300-ohm-reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor?
A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees
B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37
degrees
C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees
D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees
~~
E5C09 (A)
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit,
what does the horizontal axis represent?
A.
Resistive component
B. Reactive component
C. The sum of the reactive and resistive
components
D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
~~
E5C10 (B)
When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit,
what does the vertical axis represent?
A. Resistive component
B. Reactive component
C. The sum of the reactive and resistive
components
D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components
~~
E5C11 (C)
What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a
graph using rectangular coordinates?
A. The magnitude and phase of the point
B. The sine and cosine values
C. The coordinate values along
the horizontal and vertical axes
D. The tangent and cotangent values
~~
E5C12 (D)
If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate
system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the
horizontal axis, what do you know about the circuit?
A. It has to be a direct current circuit
B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance
C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance
D. It is equivalent to a pure
resistance
~~
E5C13 (D)
What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive,
and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Rectangular coordinates
~~
E5C14 (D)
What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a
circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance?
A. Maidenhead grid
B. Faraday grid
C. Elliptical coordinates
D. Polar coordinates
~~
E5C15 (A)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100
ohms impedance?
A. 141 ohms at an angle of -45
degrees
B. 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
C. 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
~~
E5C16 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an
admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?
A. 5.03 E–06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45
degrees
C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
~~
E5C17 (C)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has
an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees?
A. 173 -j100 ohms
B. 200 +j100 ohms
C. 173 +j100 ohms
D. 200 -j100 ohms
~~
E5C18 (B)
In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a
capacitive reactance of 1 ohm?
A. 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees
B. 5 ohms at an angle of 37
degrees
C. 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
D. 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees
~~
E5C19 (B)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series
circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14
MHz?
A. Point 2
B. Point 4
C. Point 5
D. Point 6
~~
E5C20 (B)
Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series
circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505
MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 7
D. Point 8
~~
E5C21 (A)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series
circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200
MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 7
D. Point 8
~~
E5C22 (A)
In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting
of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz?
A. 40 + j31,400
B. 40 - j31,400
C. 31,400 + j40
D. 31,400 - j40
~~
E5C23 (D)
Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit
consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an
85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz?
A. Point 1
B. Point 3
C. Point 5
D. Point 8
~~
E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect;
electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor;
coordinate systems
E5D01 (A)
What is the result of skin effect?
A. As frequency increases, RF
current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface
B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the
conductor, closer to the surface
C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance
D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance
~~
E5D02 (C)
Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for
direct currents?
A. Because the insulation conducts
current at high frequencies
B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
C. Because of skin effect
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices
~~
E5D03 (C)
What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?
A. A battery
B. A transformer
C. A capacitor
D. An inductor
~~
E5D04 (B)
What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?
A. Coulomb
B. Joule
C. Watt
D. Volt
~~
E5D05 (B)
Which of the following creates a magnetic field?
A. Potential differences between two points in space
B. Electric
current
C. A charged capacitor
D. A battery
~~
E5D06 (D)
In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in
relation to the direction of electron flow?
A. In the same direction as the current
B. In a direction opposite to the current
C. In all directions; omnidirectional
D. In a direction determined by
the left-hand rule
~~
E5D07 (D)
What determines the strength of a magnetic
field around a conductor?
A. The resistance divided by the current
B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
C. The diameter of the conductor
D. The amount of current
~~
E5D08 (B)
What
type of energy is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
A.
Electromechanical energy
B. Potential energy
C.
Thermodynamic energy
D.
Kinetic energy
~~
E5D09 (B)
What happens to reactive power in an AC circuit that
has both ideal inductors and ideal capacitors?
A. It is dissipated as heat in the
circuit
B. It is repeatedly exchanged
between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated
C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in
the circuit
D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
~~
E5D10 (A)
How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage
and current are out of phase?
A.
By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor
B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor
C. By dividing the apparent power by the
power factor
D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor
~~
E5D11 (C)
What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle
between the voltage and the current?
A. 1.414
B. 0.866
C. 0.5
D. 1.73
~~
E5D12 (B)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if
the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?
A. 400 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 2000 watts
D. 50 watts
~~
E5D13 (B)
How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor
in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?
A. 70.7 Watts
B. 100 Watts
C. 141.4 Watts
D. 200 Watts
~~
E5D14 (A)
What is reactive power?
A. Wattless, nonproductive
power
B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage
D. Power consumed in circuit Q
~~
E5D15 (D)
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle
between the voltage and the current?
A. 0.866
B. 1.0
C. 0.5
D. 0.707
~~
E5D16 (C)
What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle
between the voltage and the current?
A. 1.73
B. 0.5
C. 0.866
D. 0.577
~~
E5D17 (D)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if
the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes?
A. 200 watts
B. 1000 watts
C. 1600 watts
D. 600 watts
~~
E5D18 (B)
How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if
the apparent power is 500 VA?
A. 704 W
B.
355 W
C. 252 W
D. 1.42 mW
~~
SUBELEMENT E6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups]
E6A
Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials; germanium,
silicon, P-type, N-type; transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, field-effect
transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel
E6A01 (C)
In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material
in preference to germanium or silicon?
A. In high-current rectifier circuits
B. In high-power audio circuits
C. At microwave frequencies
D. At very low frequency RF circuits
~~
E6A02 (A)
Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free
electrons?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. Bipolar
D. Insulated gate
~~
E6A03 (C)
What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material?
A. Free neutrons
B. Free protons
C. Holes
D. Free electrons
~~
E6A04 (C)
What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a
semiconductor crystal structure?
A. Insulator impurity
B. N-type impurity
C. Acceptor impurity
D. Donor impurity
~~
E6A05 (C)
What is the alpha of a bipolar junction
transistor?
A. The change of collector current with respect to base current
B. The change of base current with
respect to collector current
C. The change of collector
current with respect to emitter current
D. The change of collector current with
respect to gate current
~~
E6A06 (B)
What is the beta of a bipolar junction
transistor?
A. The frequency at which the current
gain is reduced to 1
B. The change in collector
current with respect to base current
C. The breakdown voltage of the base to
collector junction
D. The switching speed of the transistor
~~
E6A07 (A)
In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic
symbol for a PNP transistor?
A.
1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
~~
E6A08 (D)
What term indicates the frequency at
which the grounded-base current gain of a transistor has decreased to 0.7 of
the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?
A. Corner frequency
B. Alpha rejection frequency
C. Beta cutoff frequency
D. Alpha cutoff frequency
~~
E6A09 (A)
What
is a depletion-mode FET?
A. An FET that exhibits a current flow
between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
B.
An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage
is applied
C. Any FET without a channel
D.
Any FET for which holes are the majority carriers
~~
E6A10 (B)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate
MOSFET?
A. 2
B.
4
C. 5
D. 6
~~
E6A11 (A)
In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction
FET?
A.
1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
~~
E6A12 (D)
Why
do many MOSFET devices have internally connected Zener diodes on the gates?
A.
To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate
voltage
B.
To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
C.
To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from
overheating
D. To reduce the chance of the gate
insulation being punctured by static discharges or excessive voltages
~~
E6A13
(C)
What
do the initials CMOS stand for?
A.
Common Mode Oscillating System
B.
Complementary Mica-Oxide Silicon
C. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
D.
Common Mode Organic Silicon
~~
E6A14 (C)
How
does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor compare with
the DC input impedance of a bipolar transistor?
A. They are both low impedance
B.
An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance
C. An FET has high input impedance; a
bipolar transistor has low input impedance
D. They are both high impedance
~~
E6A15 (B)
Which of the following semiconductor
materials contains an excess of holes in the outer shell of electrons?
A. N-type
B. P-type
C. Superconductor-type
D. Bipolar-type
~~
E6A16 (B)
What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductor material?
A. Holes
B. Free electrons
C. Free protons
D. Free neutrons
~~
E6A17 (D)
What are the names of the three terminals of a field-effect transistor?
A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain
B. Emitter, base, collector
C. Emitter, base 1, base 2
D. Gate, drain, source
~~
E6B Semiconductor diodes
E6B01 (B)
What
is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?
A. A constant current drop under
conditions of varying voltage
B. A constant voltage drop under
conditions of varying current
C. A negative resistance region
D. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
~~
E6B02 (D)
What is an important characteristic of a
Schottky diode as compared to an ordinary silicon diode when used as a power
supply rectifier?
A. Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
B. Controlled reverse avalanche voltage
C. Enhanced carrier retention time
D. Less forward voltage drop
~~
E6B03 (C)
What special type of diode is capable of both amplification and
oscillation?
A. Point contact
B. Zener
C. Tunnel
D. Junction
~~
E6B04 (A)
What
type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled
capacitor?
A.
Varactor diode
B. Tunnel diode
C.
Silicon-controlled rectifier
D.
Zener diode
~~
E6B05
(D)
What
characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch or attenuator?
A.
Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
B.
Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
C.
Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
D. A large region of intrinsic material
~~
E6B06 (D)
Which of the following is a common use
of a hot-carrier diode?
A. As balanced mixers in FM generation
B. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
C. As a constant voltage reference in a
power supply
D. As a VHF / UHF mixer or
detector
~~
E6B07 (B)
What
is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?
A.
Excessive inverse voltage
B. Excessive junction temperature
C.
Insufficient forward voltage
D.
Charge carrier depletion
~~
E6B08 (A)
Which of the following describes a type
of semiconductor diode?
A. Metal-semiconductor junction
B. Electrolytic rectifier
C. CMOS-field effect
D. Thermionic emission diode
~~
E6B09 (C)
What is a common use for point contact
diodes?
A. As a constant current source
B. As a constant voltage source
C. As an RF detector
D. As a high voltage rectifier
~~
E6B10 (B)
In Figure E6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emitting diode?
A. 1
B.
5
C. 6
D. 7
~~
E6B11 (A)
What is used to control the attenuation
of RF signals by a PIN diode?
A.
Forward DC bias current
B. A sub-harmonic pump signal
C. Reverse voltage larger than the RF
signal
D. Capacitance of an RF coupling
capacitor
~~
E6B12 (C)
What is one common use for PIN diodes?
A. As a constant current source
B. As a constant voltage source
C. As an RF switch
D. As a high voltage rectifier
~~
E6B13 (B)
What type of bias is required for an LED
to emit light?
A. Reverse bias
B. Forward bias
C. Zero bias
D. Inductive bias
~~
E6C Integrated
circuits: TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS
digital integrated circuits; gates
E6C01 (C)
What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated
circuits?
A. 12 volts
B. 1.5 volts
C. 5 volts
D. 13.6 volts
~~
E6C02 (A)
What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left
open?
A. A logic-high state
B. A logic-low state
C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or
low-logic states
D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored
~~
E6C03 (A)
Which of the following describes
tri-state logic?
A.
Logic devices with 0, 1, and high impedance output states
B. Logic devices that utilize ternary
math
C. Low power logic devices designed to
operate at 3 volts
D. Proprietary logic devices
manufactured by Tri-State Devices
~~
E6C04 (B)
Which of the following is the primary
advantage of tri-state logic?
A. Low power consumption
B.
Ability to connect many device outputs to a common bus
C. High speed operation
D. More efficient arithmetic operations
~~
E6C05 (D)
Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL
devices?
A. Differential output capability
B. Lower distortion
C. Immune to damage from static discharge
D. Lower power consumption
~~
E6C06 (C)
Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on
the input signal or power supply?
A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in
CMOS circuit design
B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply
voltage
C. The input switching
threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage
D. Input signals are stronger
~~
E6C07 (A)
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic
symbol for an AND gate?
A.
1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
~~
E6C08 (B)
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic
symbol for a NAND gate?
A. 1
B.
2
C. 3
D. 4
~~
E6C09 (B)
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic
symbol for an OR gate?
A. 2
B.
3
C. 4
D. 6
~~
E6C10 (D)
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic
symbol for a NOR gate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
~~
E6C11 (C)
In Figure E6-5, what is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation
(inverter)?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
~~
E6C12 (D)
What is BiCMOS logic?
A. A logic device with two CMOS circuits
per package
B. An FET logic family based on
bimetallic semiconductors
C. A logic family based on bismuth CMOS
devices
D.
An integrated circuit logic family using both bipolar and CMOS transistors
~~
E6C13 (C)
Which of the following is an advantage
of BiCMOS logic?
A. Its simplicity results in much less
expensive devices than standard CMOS
B. It is totally immune to electrostatic
damage
C.
It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar
transistors
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E6D
Optical devices and toroids: cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled devices
(CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs) Toroids: permeability; core material;
selecting; winding
E6D01 (D)
What is cathode ray tube (CRT)
persistence?
A. The time it takes for an image to appear after the electron beam is
turned on
B. The relative brightness of the display under varying conditions of
ambient light
C. The ability of the display to remain in focus under varying conditions
D. The length of time the image
remains on the screen after the beam is turned off
~~
E6D02 (B)
Exceeding what design rating can cause a cathode ray tube (CRT) to
generate X-rays?
A. The heater voltage
B. The anode voltage
C. The operating temperature
D. The operating frequency
~~
E6D03 (C)
Which of the following is true of a
charge-coupled device (CCD)?
A. Its phase shift changes rapidly with frequency
B. It is a CMOS analog-to-digital converter
C. It samples an analog signal
and passes it in stages from the input to the output
D. It is used in a battery charger
circuit
~~
E6D04 (A)
What function does a charge-coupled device (CCD) serve in a modern video
camera?
A. It stores photogenerated
charges as signals corresponding to pixels
B. It generates the horizontal pulses needed for electron beam scanning
C. It focuses the light used to produce a pattern of electrical charges
corresponding to the image
D. It combines audio and video information to produce a composite RF
signal
~~
E6D05 (B)
What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)?
A. A modern replacement for a quartz crystal oscillator which displays
its fundamental frequency
B. A display using a
crystalline liquid which, in conjunction with polarizing filters, becomes
opaque when voltage is applied
C. A frequency-determining unit for a
transmitter or receiver
D. A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim
light
~~
E6D06 (D)
What
core material property determines the inductance of a toroidal inductor?
A.
Thermal impedance
B.
Resistance
C.
Reactivity
D. Permeability
~~
E6D07 (B)
What is the usable frequency range of inductors that use toroidal cores,
assuming a correct selection of core material for the frequency being used?
A. From a few kHz to no more than 30 MHz
B. From less than 20 Hz to
approximately 300 MHz
C. From approximately 10 Hz to no more
than 3000 kHz
D. From about 100 kHz to at least 1000
GHz
~~
E6D08 (B)
What
is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids rather than ferrite
toroids in an inductor?
A.
Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeability
B. Powdered-iron toroids
generally maintain their characteristics at higher currents
C.
Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a given
inductance value
D. Powdered-iron toroids have higher power handling
capacity
~~
E6D09 (C)
What devices are commonly used as VHF
and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of
transistorized HF amplifiers?
A. Electrolytic capacitors
B. Butterworth filters
C. Ferrite beads
D. Steel-core toroids
~~
E6D10 (A)
What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a
solenoidal core in an inductor?
A. Toroidal cores confine most
of the magnetic field within the core material
B. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other
components
C. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
D. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
~~
E6D11 (C)
How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using a
ferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 523
millihenrys/1000 turns?
A. 2 turns
B. 4 turns
C. 43 turns
D. 229 turns
~~
E6D12 (A)
How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using
a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40
microhenrys/100 turns?
A. 35 turns
B. 13 turns
C. 79 turns
D. 141 turns
~~
E6D13 (D)
What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waveforms are
to be displayed on the screen?
A. Electromagnetic
B. Tubular
C. Radar
D. Electrostatic
~~
E6D14 (C)
Which is NOT true of a charge-coupled
device (CCD)?
A. It uses a combination of analog and
digital circuitry
B. It can be used to make an audio delay line
C.
It is commonly used as an analog-to-digital converter
D. It samples and stores analog signals
~~
E6D15 (A)
What is the principle advantage of liquid-crystal display (LCD) devices
over other types of display devices?
A. They consume less power
B. They can display changes instantly
C. They are visible in all light conditions
D. They can be easily interchanged with other display devices
~~
E6D16 (C)
What is one reason for using ferrite toroids rather than powdered-iron
toroids in an inductor?
A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower
initial permeabilities
B. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stability
C. Ferrite toroids generally
require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
D. Ferrite toroids are easier to use
with surface mount technology
~~
E6E
Piezoelectric crystals and MMICs: quartz crystal oscillators and crystal filters);
monolithic amplifiers
E6E01 (D)
What is a crystal lattice filter?
A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
B. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz
intervals
C. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartz
crystals
D. A filter with narrow
bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartz crystals
~~
E6E02 (A)
Which of the following factors has the greatest effect in helping
determine the bandwidth and response shape of a crystal ladder filter?
A.
The relative frequencies of the individual crystals
B. The DC voltage applied to the quartz crystal
C. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filter
D. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
~~
E6E03 (A)
What is one aspect of the piezoelectric
effect?
A. Physical deformation of a
crystal by the application of a voltage
B. Mechanical deformation of a crystal by the application of a magnetic
field
C. The generation of electrical energy
by the application of light
D. Reversed conduction states when a P-N junction is exposed to light
~~
E6E04 (A)
What
is the most common input and output impedance of circuits that use MMICs?
A. 50 ohms
B.
300 ohms
C.
450 ohms
D.
10 ohms
~~
E6E05
(A)
Which of the following noise figure
values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?
A. 2 dB
B. -10 dB
C. 44 dBm
D. -20 dBm
~~
E6E06 (D)
What characteristics of the MMIC make it
a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?
A. The ability to retrieve information
from a single signal even in the presence of other strong signals.
B. Plate current that is controlled by a
control grid
C. Nearly infinite gain, very high input
impedance, and very low output impedance
D.
Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over
the specified frequency range
~~
E6E07 (B)
Which of the following is typically used
to construct a MMIC-based microwave amplifier?
A. Ground-plane construction
B. Microstrip construction
C. Point-to-point construction
D. Wave-soldering construction
~~
E6E08 (A)
How
is power-supply voltage normally furnished to the most common type of
monolithic microwave integrated circuit (MMIC)?
A. Through a resistor and/or RF choke
connected to the amplifier output lead
B. MMICs require no operating bias
C.
Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
D. Directly to the bias-voltage (VCC IN)
lead
~~
E6E09 (B)
Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal
oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?
A. Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
B. Provide the crystal with
a specified parallel capacitance
C. Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
D. Bias the crystal at a specified current
~~
E6E10 (A)
What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?
A. Motional capacitance,
motional inductance and loss resistance in series, with a shunt capacitance
representing electrode and stray capacitance
B. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and
a capacitor representing electrode and stray capacitance all in parallel
C. Motional capacitance, motional inductance, loss resistance, and
a capacitor represent electrode and stray capacitance all in series
D. Motional inductance and loss resistance in series, paralleled
with motional capacitance and a capacitor representing electrode and stray
capacitance
~~
E6E11 (D)
Which of the following materials is likely to provide the highest
frequency of operation when used in MMICs?
A. Silicon
B. Silicon nitride
C. Silicon dioxide
D. Gallium nitride
~~
E6E12 (B)
What is a
"Jones filter" as used as part of a HF receiver IF stage?
A. An automatic notch filter
B. A variable bandwidth crystal lattice filter
C. A special
filter that emphasizes image responses
D. A filter
that removes impulse noise
~~
E6F Optical
components and power systems: photoconductive principles and effects,
photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators
E6F01 (B)
What is photoconductivity?
A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy
B.
The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor
C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy
D. The decreased conductivity of an
illuminated semiconductor
~~
E6F02 (A)
What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light
shines on it?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. It becomes unstable
~~
E6F03 (D)
What
is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?
A. A lens and a photomultiplier
B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser
C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser
D. An LED and a phototransistor
~~
E6F04 (B)
What is the photovoltaic effect?
A. The conversion of voltage to current when exposed
to light
B. The
conversion of light to electrical energy
C. The conversion of electrical energy to mechanical
energy
D. The tendency of a battery to discharge when used
outside
~~
E6F05
(A)
Which
of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?
A. A device which detects rotation of a
control by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
B. A
device which measures the strength a beam of light using analog to digital
conversion
C. A
digital encryption device often used to encrypt spacecraft control signals
D. A
device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source.
~~
E6F06 (A)
Which of these materials is affected the most by
photoconductivity?
A. A crystalline semiconductor
B. An ordinary metal
C. A heavy metal
D. A liquid semiconductor
~~
E6F07
(B)
What
is a solid state relay?
A. A
relay using transistors to drive the relay coil
B. A device that uses semiconductor devices
to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
C. A
mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
D. A
passive delay line
~~
E6F08 (C)
Why
are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid state circuits when
switching 120 VAC?
A.
Optoisolators provide a low impedance link between a control circuit and a
power circuit
B.
Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power
circuit
C. Optoisolators provide a very high
degree of electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being
switched
D.
Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
~~
E6F09 (D)
What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?
A. The output RF power divided by the input dc power
B. The effective payback period
C. The open-circuit voltage divided by the
short-circuit current under full illumination
D. The relative
fraction of light that is converted to current
~~
E6F10 (B)
What is the most common type of photovoltaic cell used for electrical
power generation?
A. Selenium
B. Silicon
C. Cadmium Sulfide
D. Copper oxide
~~
E6F11 (B)
Which of the following is the
approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully-illuminated
silicon photovoltaic cell?
A. 0.1 V
B. 0.5 V
C. 1.5 V
D. 12 V
~~
E6F12 (C)
What
absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?
A. Protons
B. Photons
C. Electrons
D. Holes
~~
SUBELEMENT E7 - PRACTICAL
CIRCUITS [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups]
E7A Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and
logic circuits: classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic;
frequency dividers; truth tables
E7A01 (C)
Which
of the following is a bistable circuit?
A. An "AND" gate
B. An "OR" gate
C. A flip-flop
D. A clock
~~
E7A02 (C)
How many output level changes are
obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a T flip-flop
circuit?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Four
~~
E7A03 (B)
Which of the following can divide the
frequency of a pulse train by 2?
A. An XOR gate
B. A flip-flop
C. An OR gate
D. A multiplexer
~~
E7A04 (B)
How many flip-flops are required to
divide a signal frequency by 4?
A. 1
B.
2
C. 4
D. 8
~~
E7A05 (D)
Which of the following is a circuit that continuously alternates between
two states without an external clock?
A. Monostable multivibrator
B. J-K flip-flop
C. T flip-flop
D. Astable multivibrator
~~
E7A06 (A)
What is a characteristic of a monostable
multivibrator?
A. It switches momentarily to
the opposite binary state and then returns, after a set time, to its original
state
B. It is a clock that produces a continuous square wave oscillating
between 1 and 0
C. It stores one bit of data in either a
0 or 1 state
D. It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in
the input voltage
~~
E7A07 (D)
What logical operation does a NAND gate
perform?
A. It produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs
are logic "0"
B. It produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs
are logic "1"
C. It produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of
its inputs are logic "1"
D. It produces a logic
"0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1"
~~
E7A08 (A)
What logical operation does an OR gate
perform?
A. It produces a logic
"1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
B. It produces a logic "0" at
its output if all inputs are logic "1"
C. It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs
are logic "1"
D. It produces a logic "1" at
its output if all inputs are logic "0"
~~
E7A09
(C)
What
logical operation is performed by a two-input
exclusive NOR gate?
A.
It produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"0"
B.
It produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic
"1"
C. It produces a logic "0" at
its output if any
single input is a logic “1”
D.
It produces a logic "1" at its output if any single input is a logic “1”
~~
E7A10 (C)
What is a truth table?
A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an
op-amp
B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is
true
C.
A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an
op-amp
~~
E7A11 (D)
What is the name for logic which represents a logic "1" as a
high voltage?
A. Reverse Logic
B. Assertive Logic
C. Negative logic
D. Positive Logic
~~
E7A12 (C)
What is the name for logic which represents a logic "0" as a
high voltage?
A. Reverse Logic
B. Assertive Logic
C. Negative logic
D. Positive Logic
~~
E7A13 (B)
What is an SR or RS flip-flop?
A. A speed-reduced logic device with
high power capability
B.
A set/reset flip-flop whose output is low when R is high and S is low, high
when S is high and R is low, and unchanged when both inputs are low
C. A speed-reduced logic device with
very low voltage operation capability
D. A set/reset flip-flop that toggles
whenever the T input is pulsed, unless both inputs are high
~~
E7A14 (A)
What is a JK flip-flop?
A.
A flip-flop similar to an RS except that it toggles when both J and K are high
B. A flip-flop utilizing low power, low
temperature Joule-Kelvin devices
C. A flip-flop similar to a D flip-flop
except that it triggers on the negative clock edge
D. A flip-flop originally developed in
~~
E7A15 (A)
What is a D flip-flop?
A.
A flip-flop whose output takes on the state of the D input when the clock signal
transitions from low to high
B. A differential class D amplifier used
as a flip-flop circuit
C. A dynamic memory storage element
D. A flip-flop whose output is capable
of both positive and negative voltage excursions
~~
E7B Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and
solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic
suppression; microwave amplifiers
E7B01 (A)
For what portion of a signal cycle does a Class AB amplifier operate?
A. More than 180 degrees but
less than 360 degrees
B. Exactly 180 degrees
C. The entire cycle
D. Less than 180 degrees
~~
E7B02 (A)
What is a Class D amplifier?
A.
A type of amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
B. A low power amplifier using a
differential amplifier for improved linearity
C. An amplifier using drift-mode FETs
for high efficiency
D. A frequency doubling amplifier
~~
E7B03 (A)
Which of the following forms the output
of a class D amplifier circuit?
A.
A low-pass filter to remove switching signal components
B. A high-pass filter to compensate for
low gain at low frequencies
C. A matched load resistor to prevent
damage by switching transients
D. A temperature-compensated load
resistor to improve linearity
~~
E7B04 (A)
Where on the load line of a Class A common emitter amplifier would bias
normally be set?
A.
Approximately half-way between saturation and cutoff
B. Where the load line intersects the voltage axis
C. At a point where the bias resistor
equals the load resistor
D. At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
~~
E7B05 (C)
What
can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?
A.
Tune the stage for maximum SWR
B. Tune both the input and output for maximum power
C. Install parasitic
suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
D. Use a phase inverter in the output
filter
~~
E7B06 (B)
Which of the following amplifier types reduces or eliminates even-order
harmonics?
A. Push-push
B. Push-pull
C. Class C
D. Class AB
~~
E7B07 (D)
Which
of the following is a likely result when a Class C amplifier is used to amplify
a single-sideband phone signal?
A. Reduced intermodulation products
B.
Increased overall intelligibility
C.
Signal inversion
D. Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
~~
E7B08 (C)
How
can an RF power amplifier be neutralized?
A.
By increasing the driving power
B.
By reducing the driving power
C. By feeding a 180-degree out-of-phase
portion of the output back to the input
D.
By feeding an in-phase component of the output back to the input
~~
E7B09 (D)
Which of the following describes how the loading and tuning capacitors
are to be adjusted when tuning a vacuum tube RF power amplifier that employs a
pi-network output circuit?
A. The loading capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the tuning
capacitor is adjusted for minimum allowable plate current
B. The tuning capacitor is set to maximum capacitance and the loading
capacitor is adjusted for minimum plate permissible current
C. The loading capacitor is adjusted to minimum plate current while
alternately adjusting the tuning capacitor for maximum allowable plate current
D. The tuning capacitor is
adjusted for minimum plate current, while the loading capacitor is adjusted for
maximum permissible plate current
~~
E7B10 (B)
In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of
R1 and R2?
A. Load resistors
B. Fixed bias
C. Self bias
D. Feedback
~~
E7B11 (D)
In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of
R3?
A. Fixed bias
B. Emitter bypass
C. Output load resistor
D. Self bias
~~
E7B12 (C)
What type of circuit is shown in Figure
E7-1?
A. Switching voltage regulator
B. Linear voltage regulator
C. Common emitter amplifier
D. Emitter follower amplifier
~~
E7B13 (A)
In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of
R?
A. Emitter load
B. Fixed bias
C. Collector load
D. Voltage regulation
~~
E7B14 (A)
In Figure E7-2, what is the purpose of
C2?
A. Output coupling
B. Emitter bypass
C. Input coupling
D. Hum filtering
~~
E7B15 (C)
What
is one way to prevent thermal runaway in a bipolar transistor amplifier?
A.
Neutralization
B.
Select transistors with high beta
C. Use a resistor in series with the emitter
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E7B16 (A)
What is the effect of intermodulation products in a linear power
amplifier?
A. Transmission of spurious
signals
B. Creation of parasitic oscillations
C. Low efficiency
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E7B17 (A)
Why are third-order intermodulation distortion products of particular
concern in linear power amplifiers?
A. Because they are relatively
close in frequency to the desired signal
B. Because they are relatively far in frequency from the desired signal
C. Because they invert the sidebands
causing distortion
D. Because they maintain the sidebands, thus causing multiple duplicate
signals
~~
E7B18 (C)
Which of the following is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?
A. High power gain
B. High filament voltage
C. Low input impedance
D. Low bandwidth
~~
E7B19 (D)
What is a klystron?
A. A high speed multivibrator
B. An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube
C. An oscillator utilizing ceramic
elements to achieve stability
D. A VHF, UHF, or microwave
vacuum tube that uses velocity modulation
~~
E7B20 (B)
What is a parametric amplifier?
A. A type of bipolar operational amplifier with excellent linearity
derived from use of very high voltage on the collector
B. A low-noise VHF or UHF
amplifier relying on varying reactance for amplification
C. A high power amplifier for HF application utilizing the Miller effect
to increase gain
D. An audio push-pull amplifier using silicon carbide transistors for
extremely low noise
~~
E7B21 (A)
Which
of the following devices is generally best suited for UHF or microwave power
amplifier applications?
A. Field effect transistor
B.
Nuvistor
C.
Silicon controlled rectifier
D.
Triac
~~
E7C Filters and matching networks: types
of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteristics;
impedance matching; DSP filtering
E7C01 (D)
How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network
arranged between the network's input and output?
A. Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between
the two inductors and ground
B.
Two capacitors are in series between the input and output and an inductor is
connected between the two capacitors and ground
C.
An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is
connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between
the input and output
D. A capacitor is connected between the
input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground,
and an inductor is connected between input and output
~~
E7C02 (C)
A
T-network with series capacitors and a parallel shunt inductor has which of the
following properties?
A. It is a low-pass filter
B.
It is a band-pass filter
C. It is a
high-pass filter
D.
It is a notch filter
~~
E7C03 (A)
What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance
matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an
antenna?
A. Greater harmonic suppression
B. Higher efficiency
C. Lower losses
D. Greater transformation range
~~
E7C04 (C)
How
does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex
impedance to a resistive impedance?
A. It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of
impedance
B. It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of
impedance
C. It cancels the reactive part
of the impedance and changes the resistive part to a desired value
D. Network resistances are substituted for load resistances and
reactances are matched to the resistances
~~
E7C05 (D)
Which filter type is described as having ripple in the passband and a
sharp cutoff?
A. A Butterworth filter
B. An active LC filter
C. A passive op-amp filter
D. A Chebyshev filter
~~
E7C06 (C)
What are the distinguishing features of an elliptical
filter?
A. Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop band
ripple
B.
Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop band
corners
C. Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the
stop band
D. Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop band
ripple
~~
E7C07 (B)
What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier
signal while receiving an SSB transmission?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A notch filter
C. A Pi-network filter
D. An all-pass filter
~~
E7C08 (A)
What kind of digital signal processing audio filter might be used to remove
unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?
A. An adaptive filter
B. A crystal-lattice filter
C. A Hilbert-transform filter
D. A phase-inverting filter
~~
E7C09 (C)
What
type of digital signal processing filter might be used to generate an SSB
signal?
A.
An adaptive filter
B. A
notch filter
C. A Hilbert-transform filter
D.
An elliptical filter
~~
E7C10 (B)
Which
of the following filters would be the best choice for use in a 2 meter repeater
duplexer?
A. A
crystal filter
B. A cavity filter
C. A DSP filter
D. An L-C filter
~~
E7C11 (D)
Which
of the following is the common name for a filter network which is equivalent to
two L networks connected back-to-back with the inductors in series and the
capacitors in shunt at the input and output?
A. Pi-L
B. Cascode
C. Omega
D. Pi
~~
E7C12 (B)
Which
of the following describes a Pi-L network used for matching a vacuum-tube final
amplifier to a 50-ohm unbalanced output?
A. A Phase Inverter Load network
B. A Pi network with an additional
series inductor on the output
C. A network with only three discrete parts
D. A
matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
~~
E7C13 (A)
What
is one advantage of a Pi matching network over an L matching network consisting
of a single inductor and a single capacitor?
A. The Q of Pi networks can be varied depending on the component values
chosen
B. L networks can not perform impedance
transformation
C. Pi networks have fewer components
D. Pi networks are designed for balanced
input and output
~~
E7C14 (C)
Which of these modes is most affected by non-linear phase response in a
receiver IF filter?
A. Meteor Scatter
B. Single-Sideband voice
C. Digital
D. Video
~~
E7D
Power supplies and voltage regulators
E7D01 (D)
What is one characteristic of a linear
electronic voltage regulator?
A. It has a ramp voltage as its output
B. It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
C. The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load
conditions
D. The conduction of a control
element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
~~
E7D02 (C)
What is one characteristic of a switching electronic voltage regulator?
A. The resistance of a control element is varied in direct proportion to
the line voltage or load current
B. It is generally less efficient than a
linear regulator
C. The control device’s duty
cycle is controlled to produce a constant average output voltage
D. It gives a ramp voltage at its output
~~
E7D03 (A)
What device is typically used as a stable reference voltage in a linear
voltage regulator?
A. A Zener diode
B. A tunnel diode
C. An SCR
D. A varactor diode
~~
E7D04 (B)
Which
of the following types of linear voltage regulator usually make the most
efficient use of the primary power source?
A. A
series current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt regulator
D. A shunt current source
~~
E7D05 (D)
Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator places a
constant load on the unregulated voltage source?
A. A constant current source
B. A series regulator
C. A shunt current source
D. A shunt regulator
~~
E7D06 (C)
What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit
shown in Figure E7-3?
A. It provides negative feedback to
improve regulation
B. It provides a constant load for the voltage source
C.
It increases the current-handling capability of the regulator
D. It provides D1 with current
~~
E7D07 (A)
What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit
shown in Figure E7-3?
A. It bypasses hum around D1
B. It is a brute force filter for the output
C. To self-resonate at the hum frequency
D. To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
~~
E7D08 (C)
What type of circuit is shown in Figure
E7-3?
A. Switching voltage regulator
B. Grounded emitter amplifier
C. Linear voltage regulator
D. Emitter follower
~~
E7D09 (D)
What is the purpose of C1 in the circuit
shown in Figure E7-3?
A. It resonates at the ripple frequency
B. It provides fixed bias for Q1
C. It decouples the output
D. It filters the supply
voltage
~~
E7D10 (A)
What is the purpose of C3 in the circuit
shown in Figure E7-3?
A. It prevents self-oscillation
B. It provides brute force filtering of the output
C. It provides fixed bias for Q1
D. It clips the peaks of the ripple
~~
E7D11 (C)
What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit
shown in Figure E7-3?
A. It provides a constant load to the
voltage source
B. It couples hum to D1
C. It supplies current to D1
D. It bypasses hum around D1
~~
E7D12 (D)
What is the purpose of R2 in the circuit
shown in Figure E7-3?
A. It provides fixed bias for Q1
B. It provides fixed bias for D1
C. It decouples hum from D1
D. It provides a constant
minimum load for Q1
~~
E7D13 (B)
What is the purpose of D1 in the circuit
shown in Figure E7-3?
A. To provide line voltage stabilization
B. To provide a voltage
reference
C. Peak clipping
D. Hum filtering
~~
E7D14 (C)
What is one purpose of a "bleeder" resistor in a conventional
(unregulated) power supply?
A. To cut down on waste heat generated
by the power supply
B. To balance the low-voltage filament windings
C. To improve output voltage regulation
D. To boost the amount of output current
~~
E7D15 (D)
What is the purpose of a "step-start" circuit in a high-voltage
power supply?
A. To provide a dual-voltage output for
reduced power applications
B. To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
C. To allow for remote control of the
power supply
D. To allow the filter
capacitors to charge gradually
~~
E7D16 (D)
When several electrolytic filter capacitors are connected in series to
increase the operating voltage of a power supply filter circuit, why should
resistors be connected across each capacitor?
A. To equalize, as much as possible, the voltage drop across each
capacitor
B. To provide a safety bleeder to discharge the capacitors when the
supply is off
C. To provide a minimum load current to reduce voltage excursions at
light loads
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E7D17 (C)
What is the primary reason that a high-frequency inverter type
high-voltage power supply can be both less expensive and lighter in weight than
a conventional power supply?
A. The inverter design does not require
any output filtering
B. It uses a diode bridge rectifier for increased output
C. The high frequency inverter
design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent
power output
D. It uses a large power-factor compensation capacitor to create
"free power” from the unused portion of the AC cycle
~~
E7E Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase
and balanced modulators; detectors; mixer stages; DSP modulation and
demodulation; software defined radio systems
E7E01 (B)
Which of the following can be used to
generate FM phone emissions?
A. A balanced modulator on the audio amplifier
B. A reactance modulator on the
oscillator
C. A reactance modulator on the final amplifier
D. A balanced modulator on the oscillator
~~
E7E02 (D)
What is the function of a reactance
modulator?
A. To produce PM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
B. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable inductance or
capacitance
C. To produce AM signals by using an electrically variable resistance
D. To produce PM signals by
using an electrically variable inductance or capacitance
~~
E7E03 (C)
How does
an analog phase modulator function?
A.
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce PM signals
B.
By varying the tuning of an amplifier tank circuit to produce AM signals
C. By varying the tuning of an
amplifier tank circuit to produce PM signals
D.
By varying the tuning of a microphone preamplifier to produce AM signals
~~
E7E04 (A)
What is one way a single-sideband phone
signal can be generated?
A.
By using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
B. By using a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
C. By using a loop modulator followed by a mixer
D. By driving a product detector with a DSB signal
~~
E7E05 (D)
What
circuit is added to an FM transmitter to boost the higher audio frequencies?
A. A
de-emphasis network
B. A
heterodyne suppressor
C.
An audio prescaler
D. A pre-emphasis network
~~
E7E06
(A)
Why
is de-emphasis commonly used in FM communications receivers?
A. For compatibility with transmitters
using phase modulation
B.
To reduce impulse noise reception
C.
For higher efficiency
D.
To remove third-order distortion products
~~
E7E07
(B)
What
is meant by the term baseband in radio communications?
A.
The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
B.
The frequency components present in the modulating signal
C.
The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
D.
The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to
increase the deviation and carrier frequency
~~
E7E08 (C)
What
are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer circuit?
A. Two and four times the original frequency
B.
The sum, difference and square root of the input frequencies
C. The two
input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
D.
1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
~~
E7E09 (A)
What occurs when an excessive amount of signal energy reaches a mixer
circuit?
A. Spurious mixer products are
generated
B. Mixer blanking occurs
C. Automatic limiting occurs
D. A beat frequency is generated
~~
E7E10 (A)
How does a diode detector function?
A. By rectification and
filtering of RF signals
B. By breakdown of the Zener voltage
C. By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
D. By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to
frequency
~~
E7E11 (C)
Which of the following types of detector is well suited for demodulating
SSB signals?
A. Discriminator
B. Phase detector
C. Product detector
D. Phase comparator
~~
E7E12 (D)
What is a frequency discriminator stage
in a FM receiver?
A. An FM generator circuit
B. A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals
C. An automatic band-switching circuit
D. A circuit for detecting FM
signals
~~
E7E13 (D)
Which of the following describes a common means of generating an SSB
signal when using digital signal processing?
A. Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder
circuits
B. A frequency synthesizer removes the
unwanted sidebands
C. Emulation of quartz crystal filter characteristics
D. The quadrature method
~~
E7E14 (C)
What is meant by direct conversion when referring to a software defined
receiver?
A. Software is converted from source code to object code during operation
of the receiver
B. Incoming RF is converted to the IF frequency by rectification to
generate the control voltage for a voltage controlled oscillator
C. Incoming RF is mixed to
“baseband” for analog-to-digital conversion and subsequent processing
D. Software is generated in machine language, avoiding the need for
compilers
~~
E7F Frequency
markers and counters: frequency divider circuits; frequency marker generators;
frequency counters
E7F01 (D)
What
is the purpose of a prescaler circuit?
A.
It converts the output of a JK flip flop to that of an RS flip-flop
B.
It multiplies a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display
the operating frequency
C. It prevents oscillation in a low-frequency counter
circuit
D. It divides a higher frequency signal
so a low-frequency counter can display the input frequency
~~
E7F02 (B)
Which of the following would be used to reduce a signal’s frequency by a
factor of ten?
A. A preamp
B. A prescaler
C. A marker generator
D. A flip-flop
~~
E7F03 (A)
What is the function of a decade counter
digital IC?
A.
It produces one output pulse for every ten input pulses
B. It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
C. It produces ten output pulses for
every input pulse
D. It adds two decimal numbers together
~~
E7F04 (C)
What additional circuitry must be added to a 100-kHz crystal-controlled
marker generator so as to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz?
A. An emitter-follower
B. Two frequency multipliers
C. Two flip-flops
D. A voltage divider
~~
E7F05 (D)
Which of the following is a technique for providing
high stability oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?
A. Use a GPS signal reference
B. Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
C. Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric
resonator
D. All of
these choices are correct
E7F06 (C)
What is one purpose of a marker
generator?
A. To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
B. To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
C.
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
D. To add time signals to a transmitted signal
~~
E7F07 (A)
What determines the accuracy of a
frequency counter?
A. The accuracy of the time
base
B. The speed of the logic devices used
C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply
D. Proper balancing of the mixer diodes
~~
E7F08 (C)
Which of the following is performed by a
frequency counter?
A. Determining the frequency deviation with an FM
discriminator
B.
Mixing the incoming signal with a WWV reference
C. Counting the number of input
pulses occurring within a specific period of time
D. Converting the phase of the measured signal to a voltage which is
proportional to the frequency
~~
E7F09 (A)
What is the purpose of a frequency
counter?
A. To provide a digital
representation of the frequency of a signal
B. To generate a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals
C. To display all frequency components
of a transmitted signal
D. To provide a signal source at a very accurate frequency
~~
E7F10 (B)
What
alternate method of determining frequency, other than by directly counting
input pulses, is used by some counters?
A.
GPS averaging
B. Period measurement plus mathematical
computation
C.
Prescaling
D.
D/A conversion
~~
E7F11 (C)
What is an advantage of a period-measuring frequency counter over a
direct-count type?
A. It can run on battery power for
remote measurements
B. It does not require an expensive high-precision time base
C. It provides improved resolution of
low-frequency signals within a comparable time period
D. It can directly measure the
modulation index of an FM transmitter
~~
E7G Active
filters and op-amps: active audio filters; characteristics; basic circuit
design; operational amplifiers
E7G01 (B)
What
primarily determines the gain and frequency characteristics
of an op-amp RC active filter?
A. The values of capacitors and
resistors built into the op-amp
B. The values of capacitors and
resistors external to the op-amp
C. The input voltage and frequency of
the op-amp's DC power supply
D. The output voltage and smoothness of the op-amp's DC power supply
~~
E7G02 (D)
What is the effect of ringing in a
filter?
A. An echo caused by a long time delay
B. A reduction in high frequency
response
C. Partial cancellation of the signal
over a range of frequencies
D.
Undesired oscillations added to the desired signal
~~
E7G03 (D)
Which
of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of
LC elements in an audio filter?
A. Op-amps are more rugged
B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
C. Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
D.
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss
~~
E7G04 (C)
Which of the following is a type of capacitor best suited for use in
high-stability op-amp RC active filter circuits?
A. Electrolytic
B. Disc ceramic
C. Polystyrene
D. Paper
~~
E7G05 (A)
How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a
multi-section op-amp RC audio filter circuit?
A. Restrict both gain and Q
B. Restrict gain, but increase Q
C. Restrict Q, but increase gain
D. Increase both gain and Q
~~
E7G06 (D)
Which of the following is the most appropriate use of an op-amp active
filter?
A. As a high-pass filter used to block
RFI at the input to receivers
B. As a low-pass filter used between a transmitter and a transmission
line
C. For smoothing power-supply output
D. As an audio filter in a
receiver
~~
E7G07 (C)
What magnitude of voltage gain can be
expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?
A. 0.21
B. 94
C. 47
D. 24
~~
E7G08 (D)
How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?
A. It increases linearly with increasing frequency
B. It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
C. It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
D.
It does not vary with frequency
~~
E7G09 (D)
What
will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-4 if R1 is 1000
ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts dc is applied to the input?
A. 0.23 volts
B. 2.3 volts
C. -0.23 volts
D. -2.3 volts
~~
E7G10 (C)
What
absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-4 when R1 is 1800
ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?
A. 1
B. 0.03
C. 38
D. 76
~~
E7G11 (B)
What
absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in
Figure E7-4 when R1 is 3300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?
A. 28
B.
14
C. 7
D. 0.07
~~
E7G12 (A)
What
is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier
with very high input and very low output impedance
B. A
digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components
external to the amplifier
C.
An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur
signals to the legal limit
D. An RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave
regions
~~
E7G13 (C)
What
is meant by the term op-amp input-offset voltage?
A. The output voltage of the op-amp
minus its input voltage
B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input
voltage required in the immediately following stage
C. The differential
input voltage needed to bring the open-loop output voltage to zero
D. The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in
an open-loop condition
~~
E7G14 (D)
What is the typical input impedance of
an integrated circuit op-amp?
A. 100 ohms
B. 1000 ohms
C. Very low
D. Very high
~~
E7G15 (A)
What is the typical output impedance of an integrated circuit op-amp?
A. Very low
B. Very high
C. 100 ohms
D. 1000 ohms
~~
E7H Oscillators
and signal sources: types of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-locked loops;
direct digital synthesizers
E7H01 (D)
What
are three oscillator circuits used in Amateur Radio equipment?
A.
Taft, Pierce and negative feedback
B.
Pierce, Fenner and Beane
C.
Taft, Hartley and Pierce
D. Colpitts, Hartley and Pierce
~~
E7H02 (C)
What condition must exist for a circuit
to oscillate?
A. It must have at least two stages
B. It must be neutralized
C. It must have positive
feedback with a gain greater than 1
D. It must have negative feedback sufficient to cancel the input signal
~~
E7H03 (A)
How is positive feedback supplied in a
Hartley oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through a capacitive divider
C. Through link coupling
D. Through a neutralizing capacitor
~~
E7H04 (C)
How is positive feedback supplied in a
Colpitts oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a capacitive divider
D. Through a neutralizing capacitor
~~
E7H05 (D)
How is positive feedback supplied in a
Pierce oscillator?
A. Through a tapped coil
B. Through link coupling
C. Through a neutralizing capacitor
D. Through a quartz crystal
~~
E7H06 (B)
Which
of the following oscillator circuits are commonly used in VFOs?
A. Pierce and Zener
B. Colpitts and Hartley
C. Armstrong and deForest
D. Negative feedback and balanced feedback
~~
E7H07(C)
What is a magnetron oscillator?
A. An oscillator in which the output is fed back to the input by the
magnetic field of a transformer
B. A crystal oscillator in which variable frequency is obtained by
placing the crystal in a strong magnetic field
C. A UHF or microwave
oscillator consisting of a diode vacuum tube with a specially shaped anode,
surrounded by an external magnet
D. A reference standard oscillator in which the oscillations are
synchronized by magnetic coupling to a rubidium gas tube
~~
E7H08 (A)
What is a Gunn diode oscillator?
A. An oscillator based on the
negative resistance properties of properly-doped semiconductors
B. An oscillator based on the argon gas diode
C. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the tee-notch principle
D. A highly stable reference oscillator based on the hot-carrier effect
~~
E7H09 (A)
What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator,
lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?
A. A direct digital synthesizer
B. A hybrid synthesizer
C. A phase locked loop synthesizer
D. A diode-switching matrix synthesizer
~~
E7H10 (B)
What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital
frequency synthesizer?
A. The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output
waveform
B.
The amplitude values that represent a sine-wave output
C. The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the
output waveform
D. The synthesizer frequency limits and frequency values stored in the
radio memories
~~
E7H11 (C)
What
are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?
A.
Broadband noise
B.
Digital conversion noise
C. Spurious signals at discrete
frequencies
D.
Nyquist limit noise
~~
E7H12 (D)
Which of the following is a principal component of a direct digital
synthesizer (DDS)?
A. Phase splitter
B. Hex inverter
C. Chroma demodulator
D. Phase accumulator
~~
E7H13 (A)
What is the capture range of a
phase-locked loop circuit?
A.
The frequency range over which the circuit can lock
B. The voltage range over which the circuit can lock
C. The input impedance range over which
the circuit can lock
D. The range of time it takes the circuit to lock
~~
E7H14 (C)
What
is a phase-locked loop circuit?
A.
An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator,
and voltage-controlled oscillator
B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable
multivibrator
C. An electronic servo loop consisting
of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a
stable reference oscillator
D. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier
with a differential input
~~
E7H15 (D)
Which of these functions can be
performed by a phase-locked loop?
A. Wide-band AF and RF power
amplification
B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter
C. Photovoltaic conversion, optical coupling
D. Frequency synthesis, FM
demodulation
~~
E7H16 (B)
Why
is the short-term stability of the reference oscillator important in the design
of a phase locked loop (PLL) frequency synthesizer?
A.
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the
loop from locking to the desired signal
B. Any phase variations in the
reference oscillator signal will produce phase noise in the synthesizer output
C.
Any phase variations in the reference oscillator signal will produce harmonic
distortion in the modulating signal
D.
Any amplitude variations in the reference oscillator signal will prevent the
loop from changing frequency
~~
E7H17 (C)
Why is a phase-locked loop often used as part of a variable frequency
synthesizer for receivers and transmitters?
A. It generates FM sidebands
B. It eliminates the need for a voltage controlled oscillator
C. It makes it possible for a
VFO to have the same degree of frequency stability as a crystal oscillator
D. It can be used to generate or demodulate SSB signals by quadrature
phase synchronization
~~
E7H18 (A)
What
are the major spectral impurity components of phase-locked loop synthesizers?
A. Phase noise
B.
Digital conversion noise
C.
Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
D. Nyquist limit noise
~~
SUBELEMENT E8 - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 Exam Questions - 4
Groups]
E8A AC waveforms: sine, square, sawtooth and
irregular waveforms; AC measurements; average and PEP of RF signals; pulse and
digital signal waveforms
E8A01
(A)
What type of wave
is made up of a sine wave plus all of its odd harmonics?
A. A square wave
B. A sine wave
C. A cosine wave
D. A tangent wave
~~
E8A02
(C)
What type of wave
has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?
A. A cosine wave
B. A square wave
C. A sawtooth wave
D. A sine wave
~~
E8A03
(A)
What
type of wave is made up of sine waves of a given fundamental frequency plus all
its harmonics?
A. A sawtooth wave
B. A square wave
C. A sine wave
D. A cosine wave
~~
E8A04 (C)
What is equivalent to the
root-mean-square value of an AC voltage?
A. The AC voltage found by
taking the square of the average value of the peak AC voltage
B. The DC voltage
causing the same amount of heating in a given resistor as the corresponding
peak AC voltage
C. The DC voltage causing the same amount of heating
in a resistor as the corresponding RMS AC voltage
D. The AC voltage
found by taking the square root of the average AC value
~~
E8A05
(D)
What would be the
most accurate way of measuring the RMS voltage of a complex waveform?
A. By using a
grid dip meter
B. By measuring
the voltage with a D'Arsonval meter
C. By using an
absorption wavemeter
D. By measuring the heating effect in a known
resistor
~~
E8A06
(A)
What is the
approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in a typical single-sideband phone
signal?
A. 2.5 to 1
B. 25 to 1
C. 1 to 1
D. 100 to 1
~~
E8A07 (B)
What determines
the PEP-to-average power ratio of a single-sideband phone signal?
A. The frequency
of the modulating signal
B. The characteristics of the modulating signal
C. The degree of
carrier suppression
D. The amplifier
gain
~~
E8A08
(A)
What
is the period of a wave?
A. The time required to complete one cycle
B. The number of
degrees in one cycle
C. The number of
zero crossings in one cycle
D. The amplitude
of the wave
~~
E8A09
(C)
What
type of waveform is produced by human speech?
A. Sinusoidal
B. Logarithmic
C. Irregular
D. Trapezoidal
~~
E8A10
(B)
Which of the
following is a distinguishing characteristic of a pulse waveform?
A.
Regular sinusoidal oscillations
B. Narrow bursts of energy separated by periods of
no signal
C. A
series of tones that vary between two frequencies
D. A signal that
contains three or more discrete tones
~~
E8A11
(D)
What
is one use for a pulse modulated signal?
A. Linear
amplification
B. PSK31 data
transmission
C. Multiphase
power transmission
D. Digital data transmission
~~
E8A12
(D)
What
type of information can be conveyed using digital waveforms?
A. Human speech
B. Video signals
C. Data
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E8A13
(C)
What is an
advantage of using digital signals instead of analog signals to convey the same
information?
A. Less complex
circuitry is required for digital signal generation and detection
B.
Digital signals always occupy a narrower bandwidth
C. Digital signals can be regenerated multiple times
without error
D.
All of these choices are correct
~~
E8A14
(A)
Which of these
methods is commonly used to convert analog signals to digital signals?
A. Sequential sampling
B. Harmonic
regeneration
C. Level shifting
D. Phase reversal
~~
E8A15
(B)
What would the
waveform of a stream of digital data bits look like on a conventional
oscilloscope?
A. A series of
sine waves with evenly spaced gaps
B. A series of pulses with varying patterns
C. A running
display of alpha-numeric characters
D. None of the
above; this type of signal cannot be seen on a conventional oscilloscope
~~
E8B Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods;
modulation index and deviation ratio; pulse modulation; frequency and time
division multiplexing
E8B01
(D)
What is the term
for the ratio between the frequency deviation of an RF carrier wave, and the
modulating frequency of its corresponding FM-phone signal?
A. FM
compressibility
B. Quieting index
C. Percentage of
modulation
D. Modulation index
~~
E8B02
(D)
How does the
modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency
(the modulated frequency)?
A. It
increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
B. It decreases
as the RF carrier frequency increases
C. It
varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
D. It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
~~
E8B03
(A)
What is the
modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of
3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency, when the modulating frequency is
1000 Hz?
A. 3
B.
0.3
C. 3000
D. 1000
~~
E8B04
(B)
What is the
modulation index of an FM-phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of
plus or minus 6 kHz when modulated with a 2-kHz modulating frequency?
A.
6000
B. 3
C. 2000
D. 1/3
~~
E8B05
(D)
What is the
deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of
plus-or-minus 5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3 kHz?
A. 60
B.
0.167
C. 0.6
D. 1.67
~~
E8B06
(A)
What is the
deviation ratio of an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus
or minus 7.5 kHz when the maximum modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?
A. 2.14
B.
0.214
C. 0.47
D. 47
~~
E8B07
(A)
When using a
pulse-width modulation system, why is the transmitter's peak power greater than
its average power?
A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100%
B. The signal
reaches peak amplitude only when voice modulated
C. The signal
reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator
D. The signal
reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude modulated
~~
E8B08
(D)
What parameter
does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?
A. The number of
pulses per second
B. The amplitude
of the pulses
C. The duration
of the pulses
D. The time at which each pulse occurs
~~
E8B09
(B)
What
is meant by deviation ratio?
A. The ratio of
the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation
to the highest audio modulating frequency
C. The ratio of
the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
D. The ratio of
the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating
frequency
~~
E8B10
(C)
Which of these
methods can be used to combine several separate analog information streams into
a single analog radio frequency signal?
A. Frequency
shift keying
B. A diversity
combiner
C. Frequency division multiplexing
D. Pulse
compression
~~
E8B11 (B)
Which of the following describes frequency division
multiplexing?
A.
The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
B. Two or more information streams are merged
into a "baseband", which then modulates the transmitter
C. The transmitted signal is divided into packets of
information
D.
Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then
pulse position modulates the transmitter
~~
E8B12
(B)
What is digital time
division multiplexing?
A. Two or more
data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
B. Two or more signals are arranged to share
discrete time slots of a data transmission
C. Two or more
data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the
sub-carrier
D. Two or more
signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency
~~
E8C
Digital signals: digital communications modes; CW; information rate vs.
bandwidth; spread-spectrum communications; modulation methods
E8C01
(D)
Which one of the
following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?
A.
ASCII
B.
AX.25
C. Baudot
D. Morse code
~~
E8C02 (B)
What are some of
the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?
A. Baudot uses
four data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot uses one
character as a shift code, ASCII has no shift code
B. Baudot uses five data bits per character, ASCII
uses seven or eight; Baudot uses two characters as shift codes, ASCII has no
shift code
C. Baudot uses
six data bits per character, ASCII uses seven or eight; Baudot has no shift
code, ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
D. Baudot uses
seven data bits per character, ASCII uses eight; Baudot has no shift code,
ASCII uses two characters as shift codes
~~
E8C03
(C)
What is one
advantage of using the ASCII code for data communications?
A. It
includes built-in error-correction features
B. It contains
fewer information bits per character than any other code
C. It is possible to transmit both upper and lower
case text
D. It uses one
character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters
~~
E8C04
(C)
What technique is
used to minimize the bandwidth requirements of a PSK31 signal?
A. Zero-sum
character encoding
B. Reed-Solomon
character encoding
C. Use of sinusoidal data pulses
D. Use of
trapezoidal data pulses
~~
E8C05
(C)
What is the
necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code transmission?
A. Approximately
13 Hz
B. Approximately
26 Hz
C. Approximately 52 Hz
D. Approximately
104 Hz
~~
E8C06
(C)
What is the
necessary bandwidth of a 170-hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII transmission?
A. 0.1 Hz
B. 0.3 kHz
C. 0.5 kHz
D. 1.0 kHz
~~
E8C07
(A)
What is the
necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII FM
transmission?
A. 15.36 kHz
B. 9.6 kHz
C. 4.8 kHz
D. 5.76 kHz
~~
E8C08
(D)
What term
describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the transmitted
carrier frequency varies according to some predetermined sequence?
A. Amplitude
compandored single sideband
B. AMTOR
C. Time-domain
frequency modulation
D. Spread-spectrum communication
~~
E8C09
(A)
Which of these
techniques causes a digital signal to appear as wide-band noise to a
conventional receiver?
A. Spread-spectrum
B. Independent
sideband
C. Regenerative detection
D. Exponential
addition
~~
E8C10
(A)
What
spread-spectrum communications technique alters the center frequency of a
conventional carrier many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random
list of channels?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Time-domain
frequency modulation
D. Frequency
compandored spread-spectrum
~~
E8C11
(B)
What
spread-spectrum communications technique uses a high speed binary bit stream to
shift the phase of an RF carrier?
A. Frequency
hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Binary
phase-shift keying
D. Phase
compandored spread-spectrum
~~
E8C12 (D)
What is the
advantage of including a parity bit with an ASCII character stream?
A. Faster
transmission rate
B. The signal can
overpower interfering signals
C. Foreign
language characters can be sent
D. Some types of errors can be detected
~~
E8C13
(B)
What is one advantage of using
JT-65 coding?
A. Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
B. The ability to decode signals which have a very low signal to noise
ratio
C.
Easily copied by ear if necessary
D. Permits
fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
~~
E8D Waveforms: measurement, peak-to-peak,
RMS, average; Electromagnetic Waves: definition, characteristics, polarization
E8D01 (A)
Which of the
following is the easiest voltage amplitude parameter to measure when viewing a
pure sine wave signal on an analog oscilloscope?
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. RMS voltage
C. Average voltage
D. DC voltage
~~
E8D02 (B)
What is the
relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude of
a symmetrical waveform?
A.
0.707:1
B. 2:1
C. 1.414:1
D. 4:1
~~
E8D03
(A)
What
input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling
capability of a Class A amplifier?
A. Peak voltage
B. RMS voltage
C. Average power
D. Resting
voltage
~~
E8D04
(B)
What is the PEP
output of a transmitter that develops a peak voltage of 30 volts into a 50-ohm
load?
A. 4.5 watts
B. 9 watts
C. 16 watts
D. 18 watts
~~
E8D05
(D)
If an RMS-reading
AC voltmeter reads 65 volts on a sinusoidal waveform, what is the peak-to-peak
voltage?
A. 46 volts
B. 92 volts
C. 130 volts
D. 184 volts
~~
E8D06
(B)
What is the
advantage of using a peak-reading wattmeter to monitor the output of a SSB
phone transmitter?
A. It is easier
to determine the correct tuning of the output circuit
B. It gives a more accurate display of the PEP
output when modulation is present
C. It
makes it easier to detect high SWR on the feed line
D. It can
determine if any flat-topping is present during modulation peaks
~~
E8D07
(C)
What
is an electromagnetic wave?
A. Alternating
currents in the core of an electromagnet
B. A wave
consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a
magnetic field oscillating at right angles to each other
D. A wave
consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
~~
E8D08
(D)
Which of the
following best describes electromagnetic waves traveling in free space?
A.
Electric and magnetic fields become aligned as they travel
B. The energy
propagates through a medium with a high refractive index
C. The waves are
reflected by the ionosphere and return to their source
D. Changing electric and magnetic fields
propagate the energy
~~
E8D09
(B)
What
is meant by circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?
A.
Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
B. Waves with a rotating electric field
C. Waves that
circle the Earth
D. Waves produced
by a loop antenna
~~
E8D10 (D)
What
type of meter should be used to monitor the output signal of a voice-modulated
single-sideband transmitter to ensure you do not exceed the maximum allowable
power?
A. An
SWR meter reading in the forward direction
B. A
modulation meter
C. An
average reading wattmeter
D. A peak-reading wattmeter
~~
E8D11
(A)
What is the
average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF
cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?
A. 12.2 watts
B. 9.9 watts
C. 24.5 watts
D. 16 watts
~~
E8D12
(D)
What is the peak voltage of a sinusoidal
waveform if an RMS-reading voltmeter reads
34 volts?
A. 123
volts
B. 96
volts
C. 55
volts
D. 48 volts
~~
E8D13 (B)
Which of the following is a
typical value for the peak voltage at a standard
A. 240
volts
B. 170 volts
C. 120
volts
D. 340 volts
~~
E8D14 (C)
Which of the following is a
typical value for the peak-to-peak voltage at a standard
A. 240
volts
B. 120
volts
C. 340 volts
D. 170 volts
~~
E8D15 (A)
Which of the following is a
typical value for the RMS voltage at a standard
A. 120V AC
B. 340V AC
C. 85V AC
D. 170V AC
~~
E8D16 (A)
What
is the RMS value of a 340-volt peak-to-peak pure sine wave?
A. 120V AC
B.
170V AC
C. 240V AC
D. 300V AC
~~
SUBELEMENT E9 - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions
- 8 Groups]
E9A Isotropic
and gain antennas: definitions; uses; radiation patterns; Basic antenna
parameters: radiation resistance and reactance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency
E9A01 (C)
Which
of the following describes an isotropic antenna?
A. A grounded antenna used to measure earth
conductivity
B. A
horizontally polarized antenna used to compare Yagi antennas
C. A
theoretical antenna used as a reference for antenna gain
D. A
spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward the earth
~~
E9A02 (B)
How
much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole in free space have compared to an
isotropic antenna?
A. 1.55 dB
B. 2.15 dB
C. 3.05 dB
D. 4.30 dB
~~
E9A03 (D)
Which of the following antennas has no
gain in any direction?
A. Quarter-wave vertical
B. Yagi
C. Half-wave dipole
D. Isotropic antenna
~~
E9A04 (A)
Why
would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?
A. To match impedances in order to
minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
B.
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
C. To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
D.
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna
~~
E9A05 (B)
Which
of the following factors may affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?
A. Transmission-line length
B. Antenna height, conductor
length/diameter ratio and location of nearby conductive objects
C. Constant feed point impedance
D. Sunspot activity and time of day
~~
E9A06 (D)
What is included in the total resistance
of an antenna system?
A. Radiation resistance plus space
impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
C. Transmission-line resistance plus
radiation resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus
ohmic resistance
~~
E9A07 (C)
What
is a folded dipole antenna?
A. A
dipole one-quarter wavelength long
B. A
type of ground-plane antenna
C. A dipole constructed from one
wavelength of wire forming a very thin loop
D. A
dipole configured to provide forward gain
~~
E9A08 (A)
What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The ratio relating the
radiated signal strength of an antenna in the direction of maximum radiation to
that of a reference antenna
B. The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to that in the
opposite direction
C. The ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to
the transmitter output power
D. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses, including
any phasing lines present
~~
E9A09 (B)
What is meant by antenna bandwidth?
A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
B. The frequency range over
which an antenna satisfies a performance requirement
C. The angle between the half-power
radiation points
D. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the element
ends
~~
E9A10 (B)
How is antenna efficiency calculated?
A. (radiation resistance / transmission resistance) x 100%
B. (radiation resistance /
total resistance) x 100%
C. (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
D. (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%
~~
E9A11 (A)
Which
of the following choices is a way to improve the efficiency of a ground-mounted
quarter-wave vertical antenna?
A. Install a
good radial system
B.
Isolate the coax shield from ground
C. Shorten the radiating element
D.
Reduce the diameter of the radiating element
~~
E9A12 (C)
Which of the following factors determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna
operating in the 3-30 MHz range?
A. The standing-wave ratio
B. Distance from the
transmitter
C. Soil conductivity
D. Take-off angle
~~
E9A13 (A)
How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole
when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
A. 3.85 dB
B. 6.0 dB
C. 8.15 dB
D. 2.79 dB
~~
E9A14 (B)
How much gain does an antenna have compared to a 1/2-wavelength dipole
when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic antenna?
A. 6.17 dB
B. 9.85 dB
C. 12.5 dB
D. 14.15 dB
~~
E9A15 (C)
What is meant by the radiation
resistance of an antenna?
A. The combined losses of the antenna
elements and feed line
B. The specific impedance of the antenna
C. The value of a resistance
that would dissipate the same amount of power as that radiated from an antenna
D. The resistance in the atmosphere that an antenna must overcome to be
able to radiate a signal
~~
E9B Antenna
patterns: E and H plane patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna design
(computer modeling of antennas); Yagi antennas
E9B01 (B)
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the 3-dB
beamwidth?
A. 75 degrees
B. 50 degrees
C. 25 degrees
D. 30 degrees
~~
E9B02 (B)
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the
front-to-back ratio?
A. 36 dB
B. 18 dB
C. 24 dB
D. 14 dB
~~
E9B03 (B)
In the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1, what is the
front-to-side ratio?
A. 12 dB
B. 14 dB
C. 18 dB
D. 24 dB
~~
E9B04 (D)
What
may occur when a directional antenna is operated at different frequencies within
the band for which it was designed?
A.
Feed point impedance may become negative
B.
The E-field and H-field patterns may reverse
C.
Element spacing limits could be exceeded
D. The gain may change depending on
frequency
~~
E9B05 (B)
What usually occurs if a Yagi antenna is designed solely for maximum
forward gain?
A. The front-to-back ratio increases
B. The front-to-back ratio
decreases
C. The frequency response is widened over the whole frequency band
D. The SWR is reduced
~~
E9B06 (A)
If the boom of a Yagi antenna is lengthened and the elements are properly
retuned, what usually occurs?
A. The gain increases
B. The SWR decreases
C. The front-to-back ratio increases
D. The gain bandwidth decreases rapidly
~~
E9B07 (C)
How
does the total amount of radiation emitted by a directional gain antenna
compare with the total amount of radiation emitted from an isotropic antenna,
assuming each is driven by the same amount of power?
A.
The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is increased by the
gain of the antenna
B.
The total amount of radiation from the directional antenna is stronger by its
front to back ratio
C. They are the
same
D. The radiation from the isotropic antenna is 2.15 dB stronger than that
from the directional antenna
~~
E9B08 (A)
How
can the approximate beamwidth in a given plane of a directional antenna be
determined?
A. Note the two points where
the signal strength of the antenna is 3 dB less than maximum and compute the
angular difference
B. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes
from the front and rear of the antenna
C. Draw two imaginary lines through the ends of the elements and measure
the angle between the lines
D. Measure the ratio of the signal strengths of the radiated power lobes
from the front and side of the antenna
~~
E9B09 (B)
What type of computer program technique is commonly used for modeling
antennas?
A. Graphical analysis
B. Method of Moments
C. Mutual impedance analysis
D. Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
~~
E9B10 (A)
What is the principle of a Method of
Moments analysis?
A. A wire is modeled as a
series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
B. A wire is modeled as a single
sine-wave current generator
C. A wire is modeled as a series of points, each having a distinct
location in space
D. A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct
value of voltage across it
~~
E9B11 (C)
What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna
model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?
A. Ground conductivity will not be
accurately modeled
B. The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
C.
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
D. The antenna will become mechanically unstable
~~
E9B12 (D)
What is the far-field of an antenna?
A. The region of the ionosphere where
radiated power is not refracted
B. The region where radiated power
dissipates over a specified time period
C. The region where radiated field
strengths are obstructed by objects of reflection
D.
The region where the shape of the antenna pattern is independent of distance
E9B13 (B)
What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when applied to antenna modeling
programs?
A. Next Element Comparison
B. Numerical Electromagnetics
Code
C. National Electrical Code
D. Numeric Electrical Computation
~~
E9B14 (D)
What type of information can be obtained by submitting the details of a
proposed new antenna to a modeling program?
A. SWR vs. frequency charts
B. Polar plots of the far-field elevation and azimuth patterns
C. Antenna gain
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
E9C Wire and
phased vertical antennas: beverage antennas; rhombic antennas; elevation above
real ground; ground effects as related to polarization; take-off angles
E9C01 (D)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?
A. A cardioid
B. Omnidirectional
C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D. A figure-8 oriented along
the axis of the array
~~
E9C02 (A)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?
A. A cardioid
B. A figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
C. A figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
D. Omnidirectional
~~
E9C03 (C)
What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas
spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?
A. Omnidirectional
B. A cardioid
C. A Figure-8 broadside to the
axis of the array
D. A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array
~~
E9C04 (B)
Which
of the following describes a basic unterminated rhombic antenna?
A. Unidirectional; four-sides, each side one quarter-wavelength long;
terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance
B. Bidirectional; four-sides,
each side one or more wavelengths long; open at the end opposite the
transmission line connection
C. Four-sides; an LC network at each corner except for the transmission connection;
D. Four-sides, each of a different
physical length
~~
E9C05 (C)
What are the disadvantages of a terminated rhombic antenna for the HF
bands?
A. The antenna has a very narrow
operating bandwidth
B. The antenna produces a circularly polarized signal
C. The antenna requires a large
physical area and 4 separate supports
D. The antenna is more sensitive to man-made static than any other type
~~
E9C06 (B)
What is the effect of a terminating
resistor on a rhombic antenna?
A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the
transmitter
B. It changes the radiation
pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical
polarization
D. It decreases the ground loss
~~
E9C07 (A)
What type of antenna pattern over real ground is shown in Figure E9-2?
A. Elevation
B. Azimuth
C. Radiation resistance
D. Polarization
~~
E9C08 (C)
What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation
pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
A. 45 degrees
B. 75 degrees
C. 7.5 degrees
D. 25 degrees
~~
E9C09 (B)
What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure
E9-2?
A. 15 dB
B. 28 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 24 dB
~~
E9C10 (A)
How many elevation lobes appear in the forward direction of the antenna
radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?
A.
4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 7
~~
E9C11 (D)
How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected
by being mounted over seawater versus rocky ground?
A. The low-angle radiation decreases
B. The high-angle radiation increases
C. Both the high- and low-angle radiation decrease
D. The low-angle radiation
increases
~~
E9C12 (D)
When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors
should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired
frequency?
A. Its overall length must not exceed
1/4 wavelength
B. It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
C. It should be configured as a four-sided loop
D. It should be one or more
wavelengths long
~~
E9C13 (C)
What is the main effect of placing a
vertical antenna over an imperfect ground?
A. It causes increased SWR
B. It changes the impedance angle of the matching network
C.
It reduces low-angle radiation
D. It reduces losses in the radiating portion of the antenna
~~
E9D Directional
antennas: gain; satellite antennas; antenna beamwidth; stacking antennas; antenna
efficiency; traps; folded dipoles; shortened and mobile antennas; grounding
E9D01 (C)
How
does the gain of an ideal parabolic dish antenna change when the operating
frequency is doubled?
A.
Gain does not change
B.
Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C. Gain increases by 6 dB
D.
Gain increases by 3 dB
~~
E9D02 (C)
How can linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to
produce circular polarization?
A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with
the respective elements in parallel planes
B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective
elements in parallel planes
C. Arrange two Yagis
perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the
boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
D. Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other, with the driven elements fed
180 degrees out of phase
~~
E9D03 (D)
How does the beamwidth of an antenna
vary as the gain is increased?
A. It increases geometrically
B. It increases arithmetically
C. It is essentially unaffected
D. It decreases
~~
E9D04 (A)
Why is it desirable for a ground-mounted satellite communications antenna
system to be able to move in both azimuth and elevation?
A.
In order to track the satellite as it orbits the Earth
B. So the antenna can be pointed away from interfering signals
C. So the antenna can be positioned to cancel the effects of Faraday
rotation
D. To rotate antenna polarization to
match that of the satellite
~~
E9D05 (A)
Where should a high-Q loading coil be placed to minimize losses in a
shortened vertical antenna?
A. Near the center of the vertical
radiator
B. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
C. As close to the transmitter as possible
D. At a voltage node
~~
E9D06 (C)
Why should an HF mobile antenna loading coil have a high ratio of
reactance to resistance?
A. To swamp out harmonics
B. To maximize losses
C. To minimize losses
D. To minimize the Q
~~
E9D07 (A)
What is a disadvantage of using a
multiband trapped antenna?
A. It might radiate harmonics
B. It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally
well
C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
D. It must be neutralized
~~
E9D08 (B)
What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through
the use of loading coils?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat
~~
E9D09 (D)
What is an advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical
antenna?
A. Lower Q
B. Greater structural strength
C. Higher losses
D. Improved radiation
efficiency
~~
E9D10 (A)
What is the approximate feed point
impedance at the center of a two-wire folded dipole antenna?
A. 300 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 450 ohms
~~
E9D11 (D)
What
is the function of a loading coil as used with an HF mobile antenna?
A.
To increase the SWR bandwidth
B.
To lower the losses
C.
To lower the Q
D. To cancel capacitive reactance
~~
E9D12 (D)
What
is one advantage of using a trapped antenna?
A. It has high directivity in the
higher-frequency bands
B. It has high gain
C. It minimizes harmonic radiation
D. It may be used for multiband
operation
~~
E9D13 (B)
What
happens to feed point impedance at the base of a fixed-length HF mobile antenna
as the frequency of operation is lowered?
A. The radiation resistance decreases and the
capacitive reactance decreases
B. The radiation resistance decreases
and the capacitive reactance increases
C. The radiation resistance increases and the
capacitive reactance decreases
D.
The radiation resistance increases and the capacitive reactance increases
~~
E9D14 (B)
Which of the following types of
conductor would be best for minimizing losses in a station's RF ground system?
A. A resistive wire, such as a
spark plug wire
B. A wide flat copper strap
C. A cable with 6 or 7 18-gauge
conductors in parallel
D. A single 12 or
10-gauge stainless steel wire
~~
E9D15 (C)
Which of the
following would provide the best RF ground for your station?
A. A 50-ohm
resistor connected to ground
B. An electrically-short connection to a metal water pipe
C. An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4
interconnected ground rods driven into the Earth
D. An electrically-short connection to 3 or 4 interconnected ground rods via a series RF
choke
~~
E9E Matching: matching antennas to feed lines; power dividers
E9E01 (B)
What system matches a high-impedance transmission line to a lower
impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places
spaced a fraction of a wavelength each side of element center?
A. The gamma matching system
B. The delta matching system
C. The omega matching system
D. The stub matching system
~~
E9E02 (A)
What
is the name of an antenna matching system that matches an unbalanced feed line
to an antenna by feeding the driven element both at the center of the element
and at a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center?
A. The gamma match
B.
The delta match
C. The
epsilon match
D.
The stub match
~~
E9E03 (D)
What
is the name of the matching system that uses a
section of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or
near the feed point?
A.
The gamma match
B.
The delta match
C.
The omega match
D. The stub match
~~
E9E04 (B)
What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma-type antenna
matching network?
A. To provide DC isolation between the
feed line and the antenna
B. To cancel the inductive
reactance of the matching network
C. To provide a rejection notch to prevent the radiation of harmonics
D. To transform the antenna impedance to
a higher value
~~
E9E05 (A)
How must the driven element in a 3-element Yagi be tuned to use a hairpin
matching system?
A. The driven element reactance
must be capacitive
B. The driven element reactance must be inductive
C. The driven element resonance must be lower than the operating
frequency
D. The driven element radiation resistance must be higher than the
characteristic impedance of the transmission line
~~
E9E06 (C)
What is the equivalent lumped-constant network for a hairpin matching
system on a
3-element Yagi?
A. Pi network
B. Pi-L network
C. L network
D. Parallel-resonant tank
~~
E9E07 (B)
What
term best describes the interactions at the load end of a mismatched
transmission line?
A. Characteristic impedance
B. Reflection coefficient
C. Velocity factor
D. Dielectric constant
~~
E9E08 (D)
Which
of the following measurements is characteristic of a mismatched
transmission line?
A. An SWR less than 1:1
B. A reflection coefficient greater than 1
C. A dielectric constant greater than 1
D. An SWR greater than 1:1
~~
E9E09 (C)
Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a
50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a
vertical antenna?
A. Double-bazooka match
B. Hairpin match
C. Gamma match
D. All of these choices are correct
~~
E9E10 (C)
Which
of these choices is an effective way to match an antenna with a 100-ohm feed point
impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line?
A. Connect a 1/4-wavelength open stub of 300-ohm twin-lead in parallel
with the coaxial feed line where it connects to the antenna
B. Insert a 1/2 wavelength piece of 300-ohm twin-lead in series between
the antenna terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
C. Insert a 1/4-wavelength
piece of 75-ohm coaxial cable transmission line in series between the antenna
terminals and the 50-ohm feed cable
D. Connect 1/2 wavelength shorted stub of 75-ohm cable in parallel with
the 50-ohm cable where it attaches to the antenna
~~
E9E11 (B)
What is an effective way of matching a feed line to a VHF or UHF antenna
when the impedances of both the antenna and feed line are unknown?
A. Use a 50-ohm 1:1 balun between the
antenna and feed line
B. Use the universal stub
matching technique
C. Connect a series-resonant LC network across the antenna feed terminals
D. Connect a parallel-resonant LC network across the antenna feed
terminals
~~
E9E12 (A)
What is the primary purpose of a phasing line when used with an antenna
having multiple driven elements?
A. It ensures that each driven
element operates in concert with the others to create the desired antenna
pattern
B. It prevents reflected power from traveling back down the feed line and
causing harmonic radiation from the transmitter
C. It allows single-band antennas to
operate on other bands
D. It makes sure the antenna has a low-angle radiation pattern
~~
E9E13 (C)
What is the purpose of a Wilkinson
divider?
A. It divides the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can
be used on a lower frequency band
B. It is used to feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
C. It divides power equally
among multiple loads while preventing changes in one load from disturbing power
flow to the others
D. It is used to feed low-impedance loads from a high-impedance source
~~
E9F Transmission
lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines; 1/8 wavelength; 1/4
wavelength; 1/2 wavelength; feed lines: coax versus open-wire; velocity factor;
electrical length; coaxial cable dielectrics; velocity factor
E9F01 (D)
What is the velocity factor of a
transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the
terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial
cable
C. The velocity of the wave in the transmission line multiplied by the
velocity of light in a vacuum
D. The velocity of the wave in
the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
~~
E9F02 (C)
Which
of the following determines the velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The termination impedance
B. The line length
C. Dielectric materials used in
the line
D. The center conductor resistivity
~~
E9F03 (D)
Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter
than its electrical length?
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the
coaxial cable
B. The characteristic impedance is higher in a parallel feed line
C. The surge impedance is higher in a
parallel feed line
D. Electrical signals move more
slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
~~
E9F04 (B)
What is the typical velocity factor for a coaxial cable with solid
polyethylene dielectric?
A. 2.70
B.
0.66
C. 0.30
D. 0.10
~~
E9F05 (C)
What
is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial
transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
A. 20 meters
B. 2.3 meters
C. 3.5 meters
D. 0.2 meters
~~
E9F06 (C)
What
is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor
transmission line that is electrically one-half wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?
A. 15 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 10
meters
D.
71 meters
~~
E9F07 (A)
How does ladder line compare to small-diameter
coaxial cable such as RG-58 at 50 MHz?
A. Lower loss
B. Higher SWR
C. Smaller reflection coefficient
D. Lower velocity factor
~~
E9F08 (A)
What is the term for the ratio of the
actual speed at which a signal travels through a transmission line to the speed
of light in a vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Surge impedance
D. Standing wave ratio
~~
E9F09 (B)
What
is the approximate physical length of a solid polyethylene dielectric coaxial
transmission line that is electrically one-quarter wavelength long at 7.2 MHz?
A. 10 meters
B. 6.9 meters
C. 24 meters
D. 50 meters
~~
E9F10 (C)
What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A. A capacitive reactance
B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
C.
An inductive reactance
D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage
~~
E9F11 (C)
What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is open at the far end?
A. The same as the characteristic
impedance of the line
B. An inductive reactance
C. A capacitive reactance
D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage
~~
E9F12 (D)
What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is open at the far end?
A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
B. The same as the input impedance to the generator
C. Very high impedance
D.
Very low impedance
~~
E9F13 (A)
What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A. Very high impedance
B. Very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
D. The same as the generator output
impedance
~~
E9F14 (B)
What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is shorted at the far end?
A. Very high impedance
B. Very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D. The same as the output impedance of
the generator
~~
E9F15 (A)
What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a
generator when the line is open at the far end?
A. Very high impedance
B. Very low impedance
C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
D. The same as the output impedance of
the generator
~~
E9F16 (D)
Which
of the following is a significant difference between foam-dielectric coaxial
cable and solid-dielectric cable, assuming all other parameters are the
same?
A. Reduced safe operating voltage limits
B. Reduced losses per unit of length
C. Higher velocity factor
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
E9G The Smith chart
E9G01 (A)
Which of the following can be calculated
using a Smith chart?
A. Impedance along transmission
lines
B. Radiation resistance
C. Antenna radiation pattern
D. Radio propagation
~~
E9G02 (B)
What type of coordinate system is used
in a Smith chart?
A. Voltage circles and current arcs
B. Resistance circles and
reactance arcs
C. Voltage lines and current chords
D. Resistance lines and reactance chords
~~
E9G03 (C)
Which of the following is often
determined using a Smith chart?
A. Beam headings and radiation patterns
B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
C. Impedance and SWR values in
transmission lines
D. Trigonometric functions
~~
E9G04 (C)
What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?
A. Resistance and voltage
B. Reactance and voltage
C. Resistance and reactance
D. Voltage and impedance
~~
E9G05 (A)
What type of chart is shown in Figure
E9-3?
A. Smith chart
B. Free-space radiation directivity chart
C. Elevation angle radiation pattern chart
D. Azimuth angle radiation pattern chart
~~
E9G06 (B)
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large
outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?
A. Prime axis
B. Reactance axis
C. Impedance axis
D. Polar axis
~~
E9G07 (D)
On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?
A. The reactance axis
B. The current axis
C. The voltage axis
D. The resistance axis
~~
E9G08 (C)
What is the process of normalization
with regard to a Smith chart?
A. Reassigning resistance values with
regard to the reactance axis
B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis
C.
Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center
D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis
~~
E9G09 (A)
What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the
process of solving problems?
A. Standing-wave ratio circles
B. Antenna-length circles
C. Coaxial-length circles
D. Radiation-pattern circles
~~
E9G10 (D)
What do the arcs on a Smith chart
represent?
A. Frequency
B. SWR
C. Points with constant resistance
D. Points with constant
reactance
~~
E9G11 (B)
How are the wavelength scales on a Smith
chart calibrated?
A. In fractions of transmission line
electrical frequency
B. In fractions of transmission
line electrical wavelength
C. In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
D. In fractions of antenna electrical frequency
~~
E9H
Effective radiated power; system gains and losses; radio direction finding
antennas
E9H01 (D)
What
is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater
station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB
duplexer loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?
A. 1977 watts
B. 78.7 watts
C. 420 watts
D. 286 watts
~~
E9H02 (A)
What
is the effective radiated power relative to a dipole of a repeater
station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB
duplexer loss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?
A. 317 watts
B. 2000 watts
C. 126 watts
D. 300 watts
~~
E9H03 (B)
What
is the effective isotropic radiated power of a repeater station with 200 watts
transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexer loss, 1.2-dB
circulator loss and 7-dBi antenna gain?
A. 159 watts
B. 252 watts
C. 632 watts
D. 63.2 watts
~~
E9H04 (C)
What term describes station output, including the transmitter, antenna
and everything in between, when considering transmitter power and system gains
and losses?
A. Power factor
B. Half-power bandwidth
C. Effective radiated power
D. Apparent power
~~
E9H05 (A)
What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding?
A. It has a bidirectional
pattern
B. It is non-rotatable
C. It receives equally well in all directions
D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands
~~
E9H06 (C)
What is the triangulation method of direction finding?
A. The geometric angle of sky waves from the source are used to determine
its position
B. A fixed receiving station plots three headings from the signal source
on a map
C. Antenna headings from
several different receiving locations are
used to locate the signal source
D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the
location of the signal source
~~
E9H07 (D)
Why
is it advisable to use an RF attenuator on a receiver being used for direction
finding?
A. It narrows the bandwidth of
the received signal to improve signal to noise ratio
B. It compensates for the effects
of an isotropic antenna, thereby improving directivity
C. It reduces loss of received
signals caused by antenna pattern nulls, thereby increasing sensitivity
D.
It prevents receiver
overload which could make it difficult to determine peaks or nulls
~~
E9H08 (A)
What
is the function of a sense antenna?
A. It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna array to provide a null in one
direction
B.
It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
C. It allows DF antennas
to receive signals at different vertical angles
D.
It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
~~
E9H09 (C)
Which
of the following describes the construction of a receiving loop antenna?
A. A large circularly-polarized antenna
B. A
small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core
C. One or more
turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil
D. A
vertical antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire
~~
E9H10 (D)
How
can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?
A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
B.
By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the
loop structure
C.
By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
D. By increasing either the number of
wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both
~~
E9H11 (B)
What
characteristic of a cardioid-pattern antenna is useful for direction finding?
A. A
very sharp peak
B. A very sharp single null
C.
Broad band response
D.
High-radiation angle
~~
E9H12 (B)
What
is an advantage of using a shielded loop antenna for direction finding?
A.
It automatically cancels ignition noise pickup in mobile installations
B. It is electro-statically balanced against ground, giving better nulls
C. It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
D. It allows stations to communicate without giving away their position
~~
SUBELEMENT E0 – SAFETY - [1 exam question -– 1 group]
E0A Safety:
amateur radio safety practices; RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials
E0A01 (C)
What, if any, are the differences
between the radiation produced by radioactive materials and the electromagnetic
energy radiated by an antenna?
A. There is no significant difference
between the two types of radiation
B. Only
radiation produced by radioactivity can injure human beings
C. Radioactive materials
emit ionizing radiation, while RF signals have less energy and can only cause
heating
D. Radiation from an antenna will damage
unexposed photographic film but ordinary radioactive materials do not cause
this problem
~~
E0A02 (B)
When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home,
what must you do?
A. Make sure signals from
your station are less than the controlled MPE limits
B. Make sure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled MPE
limits
C. You need only evaluate exposure
levels on your own property
D. Advise your neighbors
of the results of your tests
~~
E0A03 (C)
Which of the following would be a
practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio
station are within permissible MPE limits?
A. Use a
calibrated antenna analyzer
B. Use a hand calculator plus
Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
C.
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible
locations
D. All of the choices are correct
~~
E0A04
(C)
When evaluating a site
with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and
licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure
situations?
A. Only the most powerful
transmitter
B. Only commercial
transmitters
C. Each transmitter that produces 5% or more of its MPE exposure limit at
accessible locations
D.
Each transmitter operating with a duty-cycle greater than 50%
~~
E0A05
(B)
What is one of the
potential hazards of using microwaves in the amateur radio bands?
A.
Microwaves are ionizing radiation
B. The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure
levels
C.
Microwaves often travel long distances by ionospheric reflection
D. The extremely high
frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
~~
E0A06
(D)
Why are there separate
electric (E) and magnetic (H) field MPE limits?
A. The body reacts to
electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
B. Ground reflections and
scattering make the field impedance vary with location
C. E field and H field
radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
D. All of these choices are
correct
~~
E0A07 (B)
How may dangerous levels of carbon
monoxide from an emergency generator be detected?
A. By the odor
B.
Only with a carbon monoxide detector
C. Any ordinary smoke detector can
be used
D. By the yellowish appearance of the
gas
~~
E0A08
(C)
What
does SAR measure?
A. Synthetic Aperture
Ratio of the human body
B. Signal Amplification
Rating
C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
D.
The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
~~
E0A09
(C)
Which insulating material
commonly used as a thermal conductor for some types of electronic devices is
extremely toxic if broken or crushed and the particles are accidentally
inhaled?
A. Mica
B. Zinc oxide
C. Beryllium Oxide
D. Uranium Hexaflouride
~~
E0A10
(A)
What
material found in some electronic components such as high-voltage capacitors
and transformers is considered toxic?
A. Polychlorinated biphenyls
B. Polyethylene
C. Polytetrafluroethylene
D. Polymorphic silicon
~~
E0A11
(C)
Which of the following injuries can result from
using high-power UHF or microwave transmitters?
A.
Hearing loss caused by high voltage corona discharge
B. Blood clotting from the
intense magnetic field
C. Localized heating of the body from RF
exposure in excess of the MPE limits
D. Ingestion of ozone gas
from the cooling system
~~
~~end of question pool
text~~
NOTE: The graphics
required for certain questions in sections E5, E6, E7, and E9 are included on
the following pages:
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~~~ end of question pool ~~~